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Bank of Maharashtra PO's Solved Paper (Held on 04-11-2007)

Bank of Maharashtra PO's Solved Paper

(Held on 04-11-2007)

REASONING ABILITY


1. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
(A) 115 (B) 145
(C) 95 (D) 155
(E) 75
2. How many meaningful words can be made from the letters ADEL using each letter only once ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) More than three
3. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word ‘ADVER-TISE’, each of which has as many letters between them in the word, as they have in the English alphabet ?
(A) None (B) One
(C) Two (D) Three
(E) None of these
4. In a certain code, FUEL is written as $%#6 and KITE is written as @ l 7 #. How is LIFE written in that code ?
(A) 6 % $ # (B) 6 $ % #
(C) 6 H $ # (D) 6 % H #
(E) None of these
5. If in the word CUSTOMIZE all the consonants are replaced by the previous letter and all the vowels are replaced by the next letter in English alphabet and then all the letters are arranged alphabetically from left to right, which letter will be fourth from the right ?
(A) R (B) T
(C) L (D) M
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 6 to 10) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by three conclu-sions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logi-cally follows from the given state-ments disregarding commonly known facts.
6. Statements :
All flowers are fruits.
No fruit is juice.
Some juices are proteins.
All proteins are vitamins
Conclusions :
I. Some vitamins are fruits
II. Some juices are vitamins.
III. No flower is juice.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I and III follow
(C) All I, II and III follow
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
7. Statements :
Some bags are suits.
All suits are trousers.
Some trousers are shirts.
All shirts are coats.
Conclusions :
I. Some trousers are coats.
II. Some bags are trousers.
III. Some suits are coats.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
8. Statements :
All books are novels.
Some novels are poems.
Some poems are stories.
No story is a movie.
Conclusions :
I. Some books are poems.
II. Some movies are novels.
III. No movie is a novel.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only either II or III follows
(D) None follows
(E) None of these
9. Statements :
All cups are bowls.
All bowls are trays.
Some trays are plates.
No plate is spoon.
Conclusions :
I. Some bowls are plates.
II. Some cups are spoons.
III. No cup is spoon
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
10. Statements :
Some towers are pillars.
Some pillars are buildings.
All buildings are flats.
No flat is house.
Conclusions :
I. No building is house.
II. Some towers are houses.
III. Some towers are flats.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 11 to 15) In these questions the symbols @, #, $, % and H are used with different meanings as follows :
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.
‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.
‘A H B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.
In each question, four statements showing relationships have been given, which are followed by three conclusions I, II and III. Assuming that the given statements are true, find out which conclusion(s) is/are definitely true.
11. Statements :
V $ Y, Y @ Z, Z % X, X # T
Conclusions :
I. T # Z
II. X # Y
III. Z H Y
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only I and III follow
(E) None of these
12. Statements :
R @ J, J % F, F H E, E % M
Conclusions :
I. M # J
II. F % M
III. M H R
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) All follow
13. Statements :
H # R, R @ L, L H W, W % F
Conclusions :
I. H # L
II. F # L
III. H $ F
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only II and III follow
(D) Only either I or II follows
(E) All follow
14. Statements :
M # K, M $ F, F % Q, Q H H
Conclusions :
I. H # K
II. Q # K
III. Q @ M
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only either I or II follows
(C) All I, II and III follow
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) None of these
15. Statements :
D H Q, Q $ L, L # T, T % H
Conclusions :
I. D H L
II. L @ H
III. H H L
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only either II or III follows
(D) All I, II and III follow
(E) Only I and either II or III follow
Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Given an input line the machine arranges the words and numbers in steps in a systematic manner as illustrated below :
Input line : 56 dress fine shine 32 66 72 offer
Step I : 72 56 dress fine shine 32 66 offer
Step II : 72 shine 56 dress fine 32 66 offer
Step III : 72 shine 66 56 dress fine 32 offer
Step IV : 72 shine 66 offer 56 dress fine 32
Step V : 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine dress 32
Step VI : 72 shine 66 offer 56 fine 32 dress
Step VI is the last step and the output in Step VI is the final output.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
16. Step IV of an input is ‘62 sound 56 sleep roam present 33 49’. What will be the input defini-tely ?
(A) Sound 62 sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(B) Sleep sound 62 56 roam present 33 49
(C) 62 sound sleep 56 roam present 33 49
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
17. Which of the following will be the third step for input : ‘jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22 45’ ?
(A) 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22
(B) 45 jockey 43 firm growth 36 chart 22
(C) 45 jockey 43 growth 36 firm chart 22
(D) 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22
(E) None of these
18. Step II of an input is ‘53 window 42 50 door lock key 36’. How many more steps will be required to complete the arrangement ?
(A) Three (B) Four
(C) Five (D) Six
(E) None of these
19. What will be the fifth step of an input whose first step is ‘85 journey train 36 54 daily 28 mansion’ ?
(A) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36
(B) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
(C) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
(D) There is no such step
(E) None of these
20. Which step will be the last step for an input whose second step is ‘63 Sour 18 56 grapes healthy 32 rise’ ?
(A) IV (B) V
(C) VIII (D) VII
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 21 to 25) In each question below is given a statement followed by two courses of action numbered I and II. A course of action is a step or administrative decision to be taken for improvement, follow-up or further action in regard to the problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in the state-ment, you have to assume everything in the statement to be true, then decide which of the suggested courses of action logically follow(s) for pursu-ing. Given answer :
(A) if only course of action I follows.
(B) if only course of action II follows.
(C) if either course of action I or II follows.
(D) if neither course of action I nor II follows.
(E) if both courses of action I and II follow.
21. Statements : Misuse of subsidies offered to the farmers was obser-ved and brought to the notice of the concerned authorities.
Courses of Action :
I. Government should issue orders to the concerned offi-cials to be stricter and more careful whileverifying the required documents while granting subsidy.
II. Government should take stringent action against those making false claim of subsidy.
22. Statements : Expensive clothes and accessories are becoming a growing need among college going teenage children of middle-income group.
Courses of Action :
I. Colleges should introduce a dress code.
II. Children should be coun-seled emphasizing the importance of many other things.
23. Statements : People in the loca-lity were agitated as more than thirty people died in a building collapse.
Courses of Action :
I. Government should imme-diately announce compensa-tions for the affected fami-lies.
II. Authorities should take a stringent action against buil-ders tending to compromise over quality of material used.
24. Statements : With the onset of monsoon all the hospitals are getting increased number of patients due to various epide-mics.
Courses of Action :
I. Civic authorities should educate the public the need for observing minimum required hygiene.
II. Civic authorities should make arrangements to equip the hospitals with required medicines and other facili-ties.
25. Statements : More number of students passing SSC examina-tion has resulted into frustration among children for not getting admissions into colleges of their choice.
Courses of Action :
I. Government should permit the colleges to increase the number of seats.
II. Children and their parents should be counseled for being flexible on the choice of college.
Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) In each of these questions a group of digits is given followed by four combinations of letter/symbol code lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to code the group of digits as per the scheme and conditions given below. Serial letter of the combination that correctly represents the group of digits is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. ‘None of these’.

Digit 5 7 0 9 3 1 6 4 8 2
Letter/Symbol Code
K E H $ ∆ A J Q R @
Conditions
(i) If the first as well as last digit is odd their codes are to be inter-changed.
(ii) If the first digit is even and the last digit odd both are to be coded by the code for odd digit.
(iii) If the last digit is ‘0’ it is to be coded by ‘X’.
(iv) If the first as well as the last digit is even both are to be coded by H.
26. 586403
(A) KRJQHD (B) DRJQHK
(C) DHJQRK (D) KHJQRD
(E) None of these
27. 801234
(A) HHA@DH (B) RHA@DH
(C) HHD@AH (D) RHA@DQ
(E) None of these
28. 439157
(A) QD$AKE (B) ED$AKQ
(C) QD$AKQ (D) ED$AKE
(E) None of these
29. 389160
(A) DR$AJH (B) DR$AJX
(C) XR$AJX (D) DR$AJD
(E) None of these
30. 764138
(A) EJQADE (B) RJQADE
(C) RJQADR (D) EJQADH
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) These questions are based on the following information. Study it carefully to answer the questions.
Seven officers L, M, N, P, Q, R & S work in three different shifts I, II & III with at least two persons working in each shift. Each one of them has a different weekly off from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order.
M works in second shift only with R whose weekly off is on Friday. Q’s weekly off is on the next day of L’s weekly off and both of them work in different shifts. P works in third shift and his weekly off is on Saturday. S has a weekly of on Monday and he works in first shift. The one who has a weekly off on Sunday works in first shift. L and R do not work in the same shift, L’s weekly off is on Tuesday.
31. Whose weekly off falls on Thurs-day ?
(A) L
(B) N
(C) Q
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
32. Which of the following combina-tions of shift, person and weekly off is definitely correct ?
(A) II, M, Sunday
(B) III, N, Sunday
(C) II, P, Sunday
(D) I, L, Tuesday
(E) None of these
33. Whose weekly off is on Sunday ?
(A) L (B) M
(C) N (D) Q
(E) None of these
34. On which day is Q’s weekly off ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Sunday
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these
35. Which of the following group of officers work is shift I ?
(A) L, N, S (B) L, S
(C) N, S (D) L, P, Q
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) In each of the following questions two rows of numbers are given. The resultant number in each row is to be worked out separately based on the following rules and the questions below the rows of numbers are to be answered. The operations of numbers progress from left to right.
Rules :
(i) If a two digit odd number is followed by a two digit odd number they are to be added.
(ii) If a two digit even number is followed by a two digit odd number which is the perfect square, the even number is to be subtracted from the odd number.
(iii) If a three digit number is follo-wed by a two digit number the first number is to be divided by the second number.
(iv) If a prime number is followed by an even number the two are to be added.
(v) If an even number is followed by another even number the two are to be multiplied.
36. 37 12 21
38 81 14
What is the difference between the resultants of the two rows ?
(A) 23 (B) 32
(C) 13 (D) 18
(E) None of these
37. 23 15 12
X 24 49
If X is the resultant of the first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 24 (B) 25
(C) 28 (D) 22
(E) None of these
38. 16 8 32
132 11 X2
If X is the resultant of first row, what is the resultant of the second row ?
(A) 192 (B) 128
(C) 132 (D) 144
(E) None of these
39. 345 23 X
45 17 81
If X is the resultant of the second row, what is the resultant of the first row ?
(A) 285 (B) 33
(C) 135 (D) 34
(E) None of these
40. 12 28 84
37 22 18
What is the sum of the resultants of the two rows ?
(A) 77 (B) 87
(C) 84 (D) 72
(E) None of these
Directions—(Q. 41 to 45) Below is given a passage followed by several possible inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark answer—
(A) if the inference is ‘definitely true’, i.e. it properly follows from the statement of facts given.
(B) if the inference is ‘probably true’ though not ‘definitely true’ in the light of the facts given.
(C) if the ‘data are inadequate’, i.e. from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(D) if the inference is ‘probably false’, though not ‘definitely false’ in the light of the facts given.
(E) if the inference is ‘defini-tely false’, i.e., it cannot possibly be drawn from the facts given or it contradicts the given facts.
Growth through acquisitions and alliances has become a critical part of creating value for pharma and bio-tech manufacturers and their share-holders. However, companies and their investors may risk value des-truction if they acquire rights to a drug that suddenly poses unantici-pated safety risks for patients.
Similarly, safety related compliance violations committed by an acquired company could significantly impair the ultimate value of the transaction and the reputation of the acquirer. The pace of deal making between pharma and biotech companies con-tinued to accelerate in 2006, increas-ing 17% to about $ 18 billion. Pharma companies were typically the buyers, and the premiums they paid increa-sed substantially as competition intensified, to secure access to novel drugs and biologics. The stakes increase everyday as competition pushes up prices and drives deal-making to earlier development stages with greater uncertainty and less time to complete thorough due diligence.
41. Acquisitions of biotech compa-nies was preferred among phar-maceutical companies in the recent past.
42. Biotech companies are not cap-able to acquire pharmaceutical companies.
43. Pharmaceutical companies at times may incur loss after acquisition of biotech companies.
44. Safety related issues are prime concerns for the pharmaceutical companies while negotiating acquisitions of biotech com-panies.
45. Stiff competitions among the prospective buyers have resulted into erosion of value of the biotech companies.
Answers with Explanations
1. (E) Each of all the rest has two factors while 75 has three factors i.e., 115 = 5 ´ 23,
145 = 5 ´ 29,
95 = 5 ´ 19
and 155 = 5 ´ 31
while 75 = 3 ´ 5 ´ 5
2. (C) Meaningful words foured from the letters ADEL are DEAL and LEAD.
3. (B)
Only one such pair is DI.
4. (E) FUEL ® $%#6
and KITE ® @ l 7 #
LIFE ® 6 l $ #
5. (A) C U S T O M I Z E
® B V R S P L J Y E
® B F J L P S V Y
The fourth letter from the right is R.
6. (D )
Only II and III follow.
7. ( A)
Only I and II follow.
8. (C)
Only either II or III follows
9. (E)
Either II or III follows
10. (B)
Only I follows.
11. (A) V $ Y Þ V = Y,
Y @ Z Þ Y ³ Z,
Z % X Þ Z £ X
and X # T Þ X > T
V = Y ³ Z £ X > T
I. T # Z Þ T > Z (False)
II. X # Y Þ X > Y (False)
III. Z H Y Þ Z < Y (False)
None follows.
12. (A) R @ J Þ R ³ J,
J % F Þ J £ F,
F H E Þ F < E
and E % M Þ M ≤ E
R ³ J £ F < E £ M
I. M # J Þ M > J (True)
II. F % M Þ F £ M (False)
III. M H R Þ M < R (False)
Only I follows.
13. (B) H # R Þ H > R,
R @ L Þ R ³ L,
L H W Þ L < W
and W % F Þ W £ F
H > R ³ L < W £ F
I. H # L Þ H > L (True)
II. F # L Þ F > L (True)
III. H $ F Þ H = F (False)
Only I and II follow.
14. (C) M # K Þ M > K,
M $ F Þ M = F,
F % Q Þ F £ Q
and Q H H Þ Q < H
K < M = F £ Q < H
I. H # K Þ H > K (True)
II. Q # K Þ Q > K (True)
III. Q @ M Þ Q ³ M (True)
All the three follow.
15. (A) D H Q Þ D < Q,
Q $ L Þ Q = L,
L # T Þ L > T
and T % H Þ T £ H
D < q =" L"> T £ H
I. D H L Þ D < L (True)
II. L @ H Þ L ³ H (False)
III. H H L Þ H < L (False)
Only I follows.
16. (D)
17. (A) Input jockey firm 36, 43 growth chart 22, 45.
Step I 45 jockey firm 36 43 growth chart 22.
Step II 45 jockey 43 firm 36 growth chart 22.
Step III 45 jockey 43 growth firm 36 chart 22.
18. (B) Step III 53 window 50 42 door lock key 36
Step IV 53 window 50 lock 42 door key 36.
Step V 53 window 50 lock 42 key door 36.
Step VI 53 window 50 lock 42 key 36 door.
19. (C) Step II 85 train journey 36 54 daily 28 mansion.
Step III 85 train 54 jour-ney 36 daily 28 mansion.
Step IV 85 train 54 man-sion journey 36 daily 28.
Step V 85 train 54 man-sion 36 journey daily 28.
20. (E) Step III 63 sour 56 18 grapes healthy 32 rise.
Step IV 63 sour 56 rise 18 grapes healthy 32.
Step V 63 sour 56 rise 32 18 grapes healthy.
Step VI 63 sour 56 rise 32 healthy 18 grapes.
The last step is VI.
21. (E) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (E)
26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (E)
31. (E) M’s weekly off falls on Thursday.
32. (D) 33. (C) 34. (B) 35. (A)
36. (C)

37. (E
38. (A) 39. (D) 40. (E
41. (A) The inference is definitely true because according to the given passage “The pace of deal making between phama and biotech in 2006 is increasing accelerately”.
42. (C) According to the passage Pharma companies were typi-cally the buyers but it is not necessary that Biotech companies are not capable to acquire pharm- aceutical companies. Hence data is inadequate.
43. (A) The inference is definitely true as it is clearly mentioned in the passage, ‘However compa-nies and their investors may risk value destruction if they acquire rights to a drug that suddenly poses unanticipated safety risks for patients.
44. (B)
45. (E) The inference is definitely false as it is given in the passage that competition pushes up prices.

uttar pradesh P.c.s. (PT) Solved Paper

uttar pradesh P.c.s. (PT) Solved Paper

(Held on 9-12-2006)

Public Administration

1. While preparing the Budget the Ministry of Finance asks from the Ministries of the Government—

(A) Actual figures of previous year

(B) Sanctioned and revised estimates of the current year

(C) Estimates for the next year

(D) All the above

2. Which of the following state-ments about the significance of Public Administration are cor-rect ?

1. Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal.

2. No Government can exist without administration.

3. One of the main functions of administration is to facilitate social change.

4. Beneficiaries of administration are almost negligible.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four

3. Which one of the following has been suggested by Henri Fayol as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ ?

(A) Grapevine (B) Gangplank

(C) Gossip (D) Graphic

4. The book “Public Administration in a Time of Turbulence” talks about—

(A) Crisis of American Demo-cracy

(B) New Public Administration

(C) Technological applications in Public Administration

(D) Politics Administration Dichotomy

5. Which one of the following is important features of New Public Administration’ ?

(A) Structural adjustment

(B) Social relevance

(C) Scientific selection of employee

(D) Rationality in decision mak-ing

6. Administration does not in-clude—

(A) Group activity

(B) Co-operation among the members of the group

(C) Co-ordination among activi-ties of participants

(D) Equal participation of mem-bers of the group

7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Woodrow Wilson has defined Administration as a detailed and systematic appli-cation of law.

Reason (R) : Every specific appli-cation of law is not administra-tion.

In the context of the above sentences which of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

8. Who of the following believed that ‘administration essentially involved reconciliation, involv-ing individuals as well as social groups’ ?

(A) Chester Barnard

(B) Henri Fayol

(C) Herbert Simon

(D) M. P. Follet

9. Arrange the following in their correct chronological sequence by using the code given at the end—

1. Minnowbrook Conference

2. Hawthorne Experiments

3. Scientific Management Move-ment

4. Michigan Research

5. Comparative Administration Group

Codes :

(A) 2, 4, 5, 3, 1

(B) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

(C) 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

(D) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3

10. Which of the following factors are responsible for the increasing importance of Public Adminis-tration in modern times ?

1. Emergence of Welfare State.

2. Scientific and technological advancement.

3. Rapid increase in population.

4. Economic planning.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four

11. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The distinction between Public and Private Administrat ion is narrowing down.

Reason (R) : The New Public Administration stresses upon public choice approach.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

12. Each Department-related Stand-ing Committee of the Indian Parliament consists of—

(A) 20 members from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha

(B) 30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha

(C) 45 members from only Lok Sabha

(D) 40 Members from only Rajya Sabha

13. Characteristics of Line agencies include—

1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.

2. They possess authority to issue directives.

3. They come in direct contact with people.

4. They do not come in conflict with staff agencies.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four

14. Which one of the following state-ments is not correct regarding the functions and powers of the Comptroller and Auditor Gene-ral of India ?

(A) He examines the accounts of the Union Government and sub-mits his report to the President

(B) He examines the accounts of the State Governments and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned State

(C) He exercises administrative control over the Audit Officers of the State Governments

(D) If any House needs any information from him, he makes it available through Public Accounts Committee

15. The principles of communication as suggested by Chester Barnard include—

1. Channels of communication should be defined.

2. Line of communication must be as direct and short as possible.

3. Line of communication must function without interruption.

4. Communicators serving the system should be trained periodically.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four

16. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors.

Reason (R) : His studies identi-fied ‘dissatisfiers which are called as extrinsic factors’.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

17. Which one of the following is not an assumption of theory ‘y’ as propounded by McGregor ?

(A) Work is as natural as play and rest for human being

(B) Average human being seeks responsibility

(C) Human potentialities are partially utilised by organisa-tions

(D) Human being wants more security than liberty

18. The idea of ‘Bounded rationality in decision making’ was deve-loped by—

(A) Lindblom

(B) Herbert Simon

(C) Dror

(D) Chester Barnard

19. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

List-I

(Theories)

(a) Achievement motivation

(b) Expectancy

(c) Equity

(d) ERG

List-II

(Authors)

1. Victor Vroom

2. Alderfer

3. David McClelland

4. J. Stay Adams

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 3 1 2

(C) 3 1 4 2

(D) 3 4 2 1

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

List-I

(Models of Decision)

(a) Bounded Rationality Model

(b) Incremental Model

(c) Mixed Scanning Model

(d) Optimal Model

List-II

(Propounder)

1. Dror

2. Etizioni

3. Lindblom

4. Herbert Simon

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 4 3 2 1

(B) 1 2 3 4

(C) 4 1 2 3

(D) 2 4 3 1

21. The concept of ‘Linking Pin’ was propounded by—

(A) Mayo (B) Likert

(C) Herzberg (D) Maslow

22. Who of the following charac-terises the powers and authority of bureaucracy as ‘New Des-potism’ ?

(A) Harold Laski

(B) Ramsay Muir

(C) Lord Hewart

(D) Lord Acton

23. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors.

Reason (R) : Behaviouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

24. The Path-Goal theory of leader-ship was developed by—

(A) Evans and Robert House

(B) Alderfer and Evans

(C) Hersey and Blanchard

(D) Blake and Mouton

25. Consider the following two state-ments—

Assertion (A) : Co-ordination is collective action of persons while co-operation is synchronization of efforts.

Reason (R) : Co-ordination results in harmonious and uni-fied actions to a stated objective.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

26. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : A sound recruit-ment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel admini-stration.

Reason (R) : A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

27. Which of the following are safe-guards against the evils of bureaucracy ?

1. Decentralisation of authority.

2. Fair and efficient personnel management.

3. Centralisation of authority.

4. Effective control of the Parliament and Cabinet.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All the four

28. James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with—

(A) Public Choice Theory

(B) New Public Management

(C) Good Governance

(D) Entrepreneurial Govern-ment

29. Who of the following thinkers is known as ‘Prophet in Manage-ment’ ?

(A) Henri Fayol

(B) Mary Parker Follet

(C) Elton Mayo

(D) F. W. Taylor

30. Which one of the following state-ments is not applicable to Herbert Simon’s decision making model ?

(A) Administrative man maxi-mises.

(B) Factual elements can be evaluated.

(C) Most decisions are com-posite.

(D) Decisions can be influenced.

31. Four systems of leadership were developed by—

(A) Keith Davis

(B) Likert

(C) Robert House

(D) Fred Fiedler

32. Match List-I with List-II in respect of difference between Public Administration and Pri-vate Administration and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I

(Views of )

(a) Paul H. Appleby

(b) Sir Josia Stamp

(c) Herbert Simon

(d) Peter Drucker

List-II

(Difference on account of)

1. Red-tape

2. Performance management

3. Public accountability

4. Service motive

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 3 4 1 2

(C) 4 3 2 1

(D) 3 1 4 2

33. Which one of the following statements about the training of personnel is not correct ?

(A) It is an investment in human resource development.

(B) Training can be only formal.

(C) It is a tool of improving the efficiency of personnel.

(D) It helps to raise the morale of personnel.

34. Which one of the following areas was not recommended by the Administrative Reforms Com-mission for creation of All India Specialist Services ?

(A) Economic Administration

(B) Industrial Administration

(C) Agriculture and Rural Deve-lopment

(D) Urban employment and poverty alleviation.

35. According to Riggs ‘Sala’ repre-sents—

(A) The administrative sub-system of a prismatic society.

(B) The administrative sub-system of a diffracted society.

(C) The administrative sub- system of a fused society.

(D) The administrative sub-system of a democratic society.

36. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The Rajamannar Committee recommended the abolition of IAS and IPS.

Reason (R) : The IAS and IPS violate the principles of fede-ralism and ministerial responsi-bility at the State level.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

37. Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by—

(A) Administrative Staff College

(B) Ministry of Personnel

(C) Staff Selection Commission

(D) Union Public Service Com-mission

38. The Theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with—

(A) Human behaviour

(B) The best way

(C) Cybernatic system

(D) Informal groups

39. Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing—

1. Conceptual skills

2. Professional skills

3. Behavioural skills

4. Pedagogical skills

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) 2, 3 and 4

40. Which one of the following countries provides maximum facilities to Civil Servants for participating in political autho-rities ?

(A) Canada

(B) U.S.A.

(C) Switzerland

(D) U.K.

41. Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Service in the year—

(A) 1960 (B) 1966

(C) 1968 (D) 1970

42. Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Consti-tution enjoins that “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law” ?

(A) Article 113

(B) Article 117

(C) Article 203

(D) Article 265

43. Project formulation does not look at—

(A) That the project is tech-nically sound.

(B) That it provides a good economic return.

(C) That it aims at moral uplift of society.

(D) That it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces.

44. In India, who of the following is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government ?

(A) Accountant General

(B) Secretary of the Administra-tive Department

(C) Director of Treasuries

(D) Finance Secretary

45. Which one of the following has not been included in the classification of Authority by Max-Weber ?

(A) Legal rational authority

(B) Charismatic authority

(C) Political authority

(D) Traditional authority

46. In the writing of which of the following thinkers, efficiency is a dependent variable ?

1. Gulick and Urwick

2. Riggs

3. Weber

4. Simon

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 4 (D) 3 and 4

47. Which one of the following thinkers believed that the “authority belongs to the job and stays with the job” ?

(A) Oliver Sheldon

(B) Chester Barnard

(C) Herbert Simon

(D) Mary Parker Follet

48. Which of the following are the advantages of Zero-based bud-geting ?

1. It eliminates low-priority pro-grammes.

2. It improves programme effec-tiveness dramatically.

3. It presents the programmes and accomplishments in financial and physical terms.

4. It lays highest emphasis on programmes in order to obtain more finance.

5. It reduces tax incidence.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 2 and 4

(B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2, 3 and 5

(D) All the five

49. Who of the following said that “the real significance of the budget system lies in providing for the orderly administration of financial affairs of Govern- ment” ?

(A) W. F. Willoughby

(B) A. Wildavasky

(C) Chris Argyris

(D) Lindblom

50. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Conting-ency Fund of India.

Reason (R) : The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

51. Executive control out adminis-tration is exercised through—

1. Execution of administrative policy.

2. Order issued by supervisors.

3. Necessity to obtain prior approval.

4. System of rewards and punishments.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four

52. In India the Union Government is bound to resign after passing of the—

(A) Censure motion

(B) No-confidence motion

(C) Adjournment motion

(D) Calling attention motion

53. The Railway Budget was separa-ted from the main budget of India in—

(A) 1860 (B) 1919

(C) 1921 (D) 1935

54. Which of the following are means of effective citizens’ control over administration ?

1. Creation of good number of public welfare committees.

2. Intellectuals coming forward and taking the lead.

3. Responsible behaviour of political parties.

4. Associaton of people with decision-making process at appropriate levels.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four

55. Which one of the following is not the responsibility of District Magistrate ?

(A) Public distribution system.

(B) Implementation of poverty alleviation programmes.

(C) Collection of Income Tax

(D) Maintenance of law and order.

56. In which one of the following parts of the Constitution of India has the provision for Panchayati Raj been made ?

(A) IX (B) IV

(C) III (D) IX A

57. The Parliamentary Committee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommendation of—

(A) Krishna Menon Committee

(B) Appleby Committee

(C) Estimates Committee

(D) Comptroller and Auditor General

58. Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in the year—

(A) 1962 (B) 1963

(C) 1964 (D) 1965

59. In practice, the Prime Minister is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuffles in the Council of Ministers. The latter exercise raises the impor-tance of—

(A) Parliament

(B) Ministries

(C) Cabinet Secretariat

(D) Prime Minister’s Office

60. The Prime Minister presides over—

(A) Finance Commission

(B) Knowledge Commission

(C) Planning Commission

(D) Population Commission

61. Communication

1. is shared understanding of a shared purpose.

2. is meeting of minds on common issues.

3. always follows the formal structure.

4. has to be understood in order to have force of authority.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four

62. Which one of the following is not involved in the preparation of plan for development in a district of Uttar Pradesh ?

(A) Gram Panchayat

(B) Kheshtra Panchayat

(C) D.R.D.A.

(D) District Planning Committee

63. Good governance by a municipal body, among other things, depends upon—

1. Committed elected represen-tatives.

2. Committed municipal bureaucracy.

3. Awakened citizenry.

4. State vigilance on its func-tioning.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four

64. Crisis of identity as a stage in the evolution of Public Admini-stration belongs to the period—

(A) 1940 – 47

(B) 1948 – 70

(C) 1971 – 90

(D) 1991 onwards

65. The District Collector

1. is a multi-functional autho-rity.

2. works on the principle of anonymity.

3. has no concern with election.

4. is an important link in the administration of the State.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3

(C) 1 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 3

66. Which of the following state-ments about the scope of Public Administration are true ?

1. Posdcorb view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations.

2. Different agencies face different problems.

3. Substance of administration is different from tools of administration.

4. posdcorb view is subject-oriented.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four

67. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commission in Uttar Pradesh ?

(A) A. P. Singh

(B) Yashpal Singh

(C) T. N. Dhar

(D) B. N. Tiwari

68. Which one of the following is the first Public Corporation created in independent India ?

(A) Life Insurance Corporation

(B) Damodar Valley Corpora-tion

(C) Food Corporation

(D) Central Warehousing Cor-poration

69. Which one of the following does not have a Municipal Corpora-tion ?

(A) Varanasi

(B) Meerut

(C) Gorakhpur

(D) Rampur

70. In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of—

1. Legislature 2. Executive

3. Government 4. Judiciary

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) All the four

71. Classical Theory of Administra-tion has been criticized because

1. it is an unscientific theory of organisation.

2. it neglected the sociological and psychological dimen-sions.

3. its principles do not have universal relevance.

4. it treats an organisation “as an open system”.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four

72. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

List-I

(a) Laws, delegation etc.

(b) Positional theory of Autho-rity

(c) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity

(d) Types of authority classifica-tion

List-II

1. Behaviouralists

2. Max Weber

3. Classical Thinkers

4. Source of Authority

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 3 4 1 2

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 2 1 4 3

73. “Co-ordination is the beginning and the end of all organised efforts.” This statement was made by—

(A) Luther Gulick

(B) Woodrow Wilson

(C) J. D. Mooney

(D) F. M. Marx

74. Who of the following said that ‘Cabinet’ is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the executive and the legislative departments together ?

(A) Lowell (B) Laski

(C) Muir (D) Bagehot

75. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Prime Minister is the Primus enter pares in a Cabinet form of Government.

Reason (R) : His position is undermined by the dominant leaders of political parties in a Coalition Government.

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

76. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.

Reason (R) : The power to hire and fire the Governor is exclu-sively available to the President.

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

77. Taylorism became popular as ‘Stakhanovit movement’ in—

(A) U.S.S.R. (B) Germany

(C) Britain (D) Japan

78. An organisation

1. consists of unstructured rela-tionships between individuals

2. is a system of consciously co-ordinated activities

3. always works for a purpose

4. functions with the help of an informal organisation

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 2, 3 and 4 (D) All the four

79. Which one of the following statements about ‘Responsibility’ is NOT correct ?

(A) Responsibility is the obliga-tion of a person to achieve mutually determined results

(B) Operating responsibility is delegated to the subordinates

(C) Authority and responsibility exist independently

(D) Ultimate responsibility can-not be delegated

80. Which of the following statements about Parkinson’s Law are true ?

1. There is little or no relation-ship between the work and the size of the staff.

2. Work expands to fill the time available for its com-pletion.

3. Parkinson’s Second Law states that expenditure rises to meet income.

4. The growth of administra-tive hierarchies is dependent upon the increase in work.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four

81. Which of the following state-ments about ‘Delegation’ are correct ?

1. It helps in increasing sense of responsibility among emplo-yees.

2. Implementation of critical programmes needs extensive delegation.

3. Lack of effective means of internal communication han-dicaps delegation.

4. It facilitates approval of new programmes by subordinates.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 4

82. Consider the following state-ments—

Assertion (A) : An adminsitra-tive organisation is an open social system.

Reason (R) : Systems approach favours a flexible participative structure.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

83. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

List-I

(a) Charismatic authority

(b) Legalrational authority

(c) Traditional authority

(d) Legitimate authority

List-II

1. Obedience to the ruler.

2. Obedience by virtue of per-sonal trust.

3. Obedience because of adher-ence to rules and proce-dures.

4. Obedience of the command as voluntary.

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 3 1 4

(C) 4 1 2 3

(D) 3 4 1 2

84. The constitution of Public Accounts Committee, first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896, now has members from—

(A) Lok Sabha only

(B) Rajya Sabha only

(C) Both the Houses

(D) As nominees of the President

85. Headquarters’ control over field administration is exercised through the methods of—

1. Reports

2. Administrative Manuals

3. Inspection

4. Investigation

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1, 2 and 3 (B) 2, 3 and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All the four

86. Which of the following are deter-mined by the budget ?

1. Financial and managerial accountability of the execu-tive to the legislature.

2. Subordinate’s accountability to superior official in the executive.

3. Legislative accountability to the judiciary.

4. Government departments’ accountability to the Finance Commission.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3

(C) 2 and 3 (D) 2 and 4

87. 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act has provided for—

1. constitutional status to Panchayati Raj bodies.

2. one-third reservation for women.

3. a separate test of subjects.

4. a separate Ministry in the Centre.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) All the four

88. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

List-I

(a) The Ecology of Public Administration

(b) The Golden Book of Mana-gement

(c) The Administrative State

(d) Economy and Society

List-II

1. Urwick 2. Riggs

3. Weber 4. Waldo

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3

(C) 4 3 2 1

(D) 2 1 3 4

89. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : The role of the Collector in developmental functions has decreased during the past few years.

Reason (R) : The Collectors are preoccupied with many other things.

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct expla-nation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

90. Which one of the following is not included in the Panchayati Raj System ?

(A) Zilla Panchayat

(B) Village Panchayat

(C) Nagar Panchayat

(D) Kheshtra Panchayat

91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists.

List-I

(a) Centralization

(b) Decentralization

(c) Demerit of centralization

(d) Demerit of decentralization

List-II

1. Delay in securing action by the field officials.

2. Unsuitable for dealing with emergencies.

3. Concentration of authority at top level.

4. Transfer of authority to lower levels.

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 2 1 4 3

(D) 3 4 1 2

92. Which one of the following statements is correct ?

(A) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi are two entities

(B) N.C.R. and Union Territory of Delhi have same boundaries

(C) U.T. of Delhi has one single Local Government institution

(D) Development of N.C.R is the sole concern of Central Govern-ment

93. Given below are two state-ments—

Assertion (A) : The election system and working of Panchayati Raj institutions is similar in all the States.

Reason (R) : 73rd Amendment has introduced certain unifor-mity in the Panchayati Raj system.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

94. Who of the following said that co-ordination is the first princi-ple of organisation ?

(A) Henri Fayol

(B) Williams

(C) James D. Mooney

(D) Chester Barnard

95. Select the correct sequence of the following administrative events by using the code given at the end—

1. Pendleton Act, U.S.A.

2. All India Service Act.

3. Setting up of Kothari Com-mission on Recruitment Policy and Selection Method.

4. Constitution of Fulton Com-mittee on British Civil Service.

Codes :

(A) 1, 2, 4, 3 (B) 2, 3, 1, 4

(C) 3, 4, 2, 1 (D) 4, 3, 1, 2

96. Which of the following state-ments are correct ?

1. The generalist-specialist con-troversy is dead now.

2. Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number.

3. Specialists compete with generalists in the power-game.

4. A generalist by virtue of his grooming is disliked by political executives in the Secretariat.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4

97. ‘Administrative Man’ model represents the real situation by—

(A) Organisation behaviour

(B) Decision-making behaviour

(C) Money-making behaviour

(D) Supportive behaviour

98. According to Gulick, three major factors determine the ‘span of control’ of an executive.

Which one of the following is not the factor ?

(A) Element of purpose

(B) Element of time

(C) Element of space

(D) Element of diversification of functions

99. Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with—

(A) The development of heavy industries

(B) Maintenance of law and order

(C) Economic development and promotion of social justice

(D) Redressal of public grie-vances

100. ‘Span of Control’ stands for—

1. Span of communication

2. Span of management

3. Span of units of work

4. Span of attention

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four

101. Which of the following are cor-rect as measures to reduce line-staff conflicts ?

1. Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.

2. Creation of opportunities for exchange of roles.

3. Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.

4. Maintenance of anonymity by staff agencies.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) All the four

102. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Func-tional Approach.

Reason (R) : Functionally dif-fused, functionally specific and intermediate societies cannot be compared.

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explana-tion of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

103. The Comparative Public Admi-nistration emphasizes that—

1. The Principles of Public Administration are seriously inadequate.

2. Any proper discipline must have complementary pure and applied aspects.

3. Organisation must be viewed as embedded in specific cultures and poli-tical settings.

4. Both the study and practice of administration are per-vasively value-loaded,

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 3 (B) 1 and 4

(C) 1, 3 and 4 (D) All the four

104. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of steps in Recruitment process ?

(A) Induction, Selection, Proba-tion and Appointment

(B) Selection, Appointment, Probation and Induction

(C) Appointment, Probation, Selection and Induction

(D) Selection, Probation, Induc-tion and Appointmen

105. Consider the following two state-ments—

Assertion (A) : Job-oriented supervisors do not permit the participation of subordinates in decision-making process.

Reason (R) : They exert little pressure on subordinates.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

106. U.P. State Employees Welfare Corporation is a—

(A) Public Corporation

(B) Government Company

(C) Joint Stock Company

(D) Registered Society

107. Who of the following was the first to make a distinction bet-ween ‘power’ and ‘authority’ ?

(A) M. P. Follett

(B) Max Weber

(C) Kautilya

(D) Frank Goodnow

108. During the course of working of personnel, learning and achiev-ing administrative efficiency is known as—

(A) Informal training

(B) Formal training

(C) Post-entry training

(D) Orientation training

109. Which of the following consi-derations are taken into account while granting promotion ?

1. Merit

2. Length of Service

3. Integrity

4. Age

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1, 2 and 3

(C) 2, 3 and 4

(D) All the four

110. Which of the following are Constitutional Commissions in India ?

1. Election Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Human Rights Commission

4. Finance Commission

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes :

(A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3

(C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4

111. Consider the following two state-ments—

Assertion (A) : According to Chester Barnard, leadership depends upon three things – individual, followers and the conditions.

Reason (R) : According to Chester Barnard, there are three styles of leadership-trait, beha-vioural and situational.

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

112. ‘Greatman’ Theory of Leader-ship led to the rise of—

(A) Behavioural Theory of Leadership

(B) Situational Theory of Leadership

(C) Trait Theory of Leadership

(D) None of the above

113. The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitu-tion in—

(A) Art. 114

(B) Art. 113 & 203

(C) Art. 265 to 267

(D) Art. 112 to 117

114. The traditional type of budget-ing is concerned with—

(A) Program Budgeting

(B) Lump-sum Budgeting

(C) Line-item Budgeting

(D) Performance Budgeting

115. The Budget was formally intro-duced in India in—

(A) 1857 (B) 1860

(C) 1868 (D) 1919

116. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A) : Administrative decisions in Government cannot possibly be evaluated through scientific methods.

Reason (R) : Administrative decisions in Government involve facts and value premises.

In the context of above, which one of the following is correct ?

Codes :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explana-tion of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

117. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of the pri-nciple of ‘Unity of Command’ ?

(A) More than one superior official should command the subordinates

(B) There should be uniformity in commands by higher officials

(C) Subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.

(D) Subordinate should follow the commands from all the superior officials

118. The classical theorists attached more importance to—

(A) Role of people in organisa-tion

(B) Structural designing of organisation

(C) Inter-personal relations in organisation

(D) Rational bureaucracy

119. Which one of the following is correct about ‘Behavioural Approach’ ?

(A) Use of traditional tools of analysis.

(B) Use of non-ecological studies.

(C) Belief in philosophical defi-nition of the term.

(D) Use of empirical studies.

120. ‘Acceptance theory of Autho-rity’ was propounded by—

(A) Chester Barnard

(B) Herbert Simon

(C) Robert Merton

(D) Elton Mayo

Answers with Explanations

1. (D)

2. (c) Public Administration is a good creative force in the man’s welfare as its ideal. No Govern-ment can exist without admini-stration. One of the main func-tions of administration is to facilitate social change.

3. (b) Henri Fayol has suggested Gangplank as an alternative to ‘Through proper channel’ in the organisation.

4. (B) The book Public Adminis-tration in a Time of Turbulence by Dwight Waldo in (1971) talks about New Public Adminis-tration.

5. (b) Social relevance is the impor-tant feature of New Public Admi-nistration.

6. (d) Administration includes group activity, cooperation among the members of the group and coordination among the activities of participants.

7. (c) Woodrow Wilson defined Public Administration as detai-led and systematic study of law.

8. (a) AccordingtoChester Barnard Administration essentially is related to reconciliation, involv-ing individual as well as social groups.

9. (b) The correct chronological sequence of the major events in Public Administration—

1. Scientific Management Movement.

2. Hawthorne Experiments (1924-1932)

3. Michigan Research (1946).

4. Comparative Administrative Group (1960)

5. Minnowbrook Conference (1968).

10. (d) The factors responsible for the increasing importance of Public Administration in modern times are as follows—

1. Emergence of welfare state.

2. Scientific and technological advancement.

3. Rapid increase in popula-tion.

4. Economic planning.

11. (c)The distinction between Public and Private Administra-tion is narrowing down.

12. (b) Each Department-related Standing Committee of Indian Parliament consist of 45 mem-bers—30 members from Lok Sabha and 15 from Rajya Sabha.

13. (c) Characteristics of the Line Agencies include—

1. They perform functions necessary to accomplish objectives.

2. They possess authority to issue directives.

3. They come in direct contact with people.

14. (c) Comptroller Auditor General examines the account of the Union Government and submits his report to the President. He examines the accounts of the State Government and submits his report to the Governor of the concerned/state. If any House seeks any information from him he makes it available through PAC.

15. (d) All the four statement are correct.

16. (b) Herzberg calls satisfiers as intrinsic factors. His studies identifier ‘dissatisfiers’ which he calls ‘extrinsic factors’.

17. (d) y theory propounded by Douglas McGregor assumes that work is as natural as play and rest for human being. Average human being seeks responsibility and human potentialities are partially utilised by organi-sations. Emphasis on security is not inherent human charac-teristic but a consequence of experience.

18. (b) The idea of Bounded rationa-lity in decision making was developed by Herbert Simon.

19. (c) Match the following—

(a) Achievement motivation—David McClelland

(b) Expectancy theory—Victor Vrom

(c) Equity —J. Stay Adams

(d) ERG —Alderfer

20. (a)

(i) Bounded Rationality Model —Herbert Simon

(ii) Incremental Model —Lindblom

(iii) Mixed Scanning Model —Etizioni

(iv) Optimal Model —Dror

21. (b) The concept of linking pen was propounded by Likert.

22. (c) LordHewartcharacterises the powers and authority of bureau-cracy as New Despotism.

23. (b) In Barnard’s view Authority is not a command but the acceptance of the order by the juniors. Behavouralists believe that Hierarchy is the best way to command and control juniors.

24. (a) The Path-Goal theory of leadership was developed by Evans and Robert House.

25. (d) Co-ordination is the synchro-nization of efforts while co-operation is the collective action. Co-ordination results in harmo-nious and unified actions to a related objective.

26. (B) A sound recruitment policy is a must for proper and effective personnel administration. A neutral personnel system ensures efficiency in administration.

27. (c) Decentralisation of authority, fair and efficient personnel management and effective con-troloftheParliamentandCabinet are safeguards against evils of bureaucracy.

28. (a) James Buchanan and Gordon Tullock are associated with Public Choice Theory.

29. (d)

30. (c) In Herbert Simon decision making model administrative man maximises, factual elements can be evaluated and decisions can be influenced.

31. (b) Rensis Likert developed four system of leadership.

32. (b) Match—

(Views of)

(Difference on Account of)

(a) Paul H Appleby

®

Public Accounta-bility

(b) Sir Josia Stamp

®

Service Motive

(c) Herbert

Simon

®

Red-tape

(d) Peter

Drucker

®

Performance Management

33. (b)Training can both be formal and informal.

34. (d) ARC recommended creation of All India Specialist Services for Economic, Industrial, Agri-cultural and Rural Adminis-tration.

35. (a) According to Riggs ‘Sala’ represents the administrative sub-systemof a prismatic society.

36. (A)

37. (c) Recruitment to the lower ranks of Civil Services is made by Staff Selection Commission.

38. (b) The theory of Scientific Mana-gement basically deals with the best way.

39. (a) Mid-career training in the IAS and IPS helps in developing conceptual skills, professional skills, behavioural skills.

40. (c) Switzerland provides maxi-mum facilities to civil servants for participating in political authorities.

41. (c) Fulton Committee submitted its report on British Civil Services in the year of 1968.

42. (d) Article 265 of the Indian Constitution enjoins “No tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law”.

43. (c) Project formulation looks at that the project is technically sound, that it is capable of being completed with available resour-ces and that it provides good economic return.

44. (a) In India, Accountant General is responsible for the detailed maintenance of accounts of expenditure in the Government.

45. (c) Legal-rational authority, charismatic authority and tradi-tional authority are the three types of authorities propounded by Max Weber.

46. (c)

47. (d) Mary Parker Follet believes that authority belongs to the job and stays with the job.

48. (d) All the five statements are trueaboutZero-basedbudgeting.

49. (a)

50. (b) The Constitution of India has authorised the Parliament to create a Contingency Fund of India. The Contingency Fund of India enables the Government to meet out any unforeseen expenditure.

51. (d) All the four statements about executive control over Adminis-tration are true.

52. (b) In India the Union Govern-ment is bound to resign after passing of the No-confidence motion.

53. (c) The Railway Budget was separated from the main budget of India in 1921.

54. (d) All the four statements are true about effective citizens’ control over administration.

55. (c) D.M. is responsible for Public Distribution System, implemen-tation of poverty Alleviation pro-grammes and maintenance of law and order.

56. (a) Part IX of the Constitution has the provision for Panchayati Raj.

57. (a) The Parliamentary Com-mittee on Public Undertakings was set up on the recommenda-tion of Krishna Menon Com-mittee in 1964.

58. (b) Nooruddin Committee on the training of Municipal Personnel was constituted in 1963.

59. (d) In practice, the Prime Mini-ster is very powerful at the start of his term and reinforces his strength through periodic reshuf-fles in the Council of Ministers the latter exercises raises the importance of Prime Minister’s Office.

60. (c) The Prime Minister presides over Planning Commission.

61. (d) All the four statements are true about communication.

62. (C)

63. (d) All the four statements are true about Good governance by a municipal body. Good gover-nance by a municipal body among other things depends upon committed and elected representatives, committed municipal bureaucracy, awake-ned citizenry and state vigilance on its functioning.

64. (b) Crisis of identity as stage in the evolution of Public Admi-nistration belongs to the period of 1948-1970.

65. (c) The District Collector is a multi-functional authority and is an important link in the admi-nistration of the state.

66. (c) POSDCORB view of scope of Public Administration has its limitations. Different agencies face different problems. Subs-tanance of administration is dif-ferent from tools of administra-tion.

67. (c) T.N. Dhar was the Chairman of the Second Finance Commiss-ion in Uttar Pradesh.

68. (B)Damodar Valley Corporation (Established in 1948) is the first Public Corporation created in independent India.

69. (d) The Municipal Corporations in U.P. exist at Aligarh, Agra, Allahabad, Kanpur, Ghaziabad, Gorakhpur, Barailly, Meerut, Muradabad, Lucknow, Varanasi total 11.

Note—In Jhansi and Rampur Municipal Corporations do not exit.

70. (c) In a broader sense, Public Administration is related to the functions of Legislature, Execu-tive and Judiciary.

71. (b) Classical Theory of Adminis-trationhasbeencriticisedbecause it neglected the sociological and psychological dimensions and its principles do not have universal relevance.

72. (c) (a)Laws, delegation etc.

—Source of Authority

(b) Positional Theory of Autho-rity —Classical Thinkers

(c) Acceptance theory of Autho-rity —Behaviouralists

(d) Types of authority classifica-tion —Max Weber

73. (c) According to J.D. Mooney—“Coordination is the beginning and the end of all organized efforts.”

74. (d) According to Bagehot“Cabinet is a hyphen that joins the buckle that binds the execu-tive and Legislative departments together.”

75. (B)

76. (c) The Governor is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure.

77. (a) Taylorism became popular as Stakhanovit movement in U.S.S.R.

78. (c) An organisation is a system of consciously co-ordinated acti-vities, always works for a pur-pose : and functions with the help of an informal organisation.

79. (c) Authority and responsibility are inter-related and they co-exist.

80. (a) According to Parkinson’s Law—There is little or no relationship between the work and the size of the staff. Work expands to fill the time available for its completion.

81. (b) Delegation helps in increas-ing sense of responsibility among employees Lack of effective means of internal communica-tion handicaps delegation.

82. (b) An administrative organisa-tionisopensocial system. System approves favours a flexible par-ticipative structure.

83. (b)

(a)

Charismatic

authority

®

Obedience by virtue of per-sonal trust

(b)

Legal-rational authority

®

Obedience be-cause of adherence to rules and pro-cedures

(c)

Traditional authority

®

Obedience to the ruler

(d)

Legitimate authority

®

Obedience of the command as voluntary.

84. (c) The Constitution of Public Accounts Committee first sug-gested by the Webly Commission in 1896 now has 15 members from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha.

85. (d) Headquarters control over the field administration is exercised through the methods of Reports, AdministrativeManuals, Inspection and Investi-gation.

86. (a) Budget ensures the financial and managerial accountability of the executive to the legislature. It also ensures subordinates accountability to superior official in the executive.

87. (d) 73rd Constitutional Amend-ment Act has provided for constitutional status for the Panchayati Raj, one third reser-vation for women, a separate list of subjects, a separate Ministry in the Centre.

88. (b) Books Writer

(a)

The Ecology of Public Admini-stration

®

Riggs

(b)

The Golden Book of Mana-gement.

®

Urwick

(c)

The Admini-strative State

®

Waldo

(d)

Economy and Society

®

Weber

89. (d) The Collectors are preoccu-pied with many other things.

90. (c) Nagar Panchayat is included in Urban local government system.

91. (d)

Centraliza-tion

®

Concentration of authority at the top level.

Decentraliza-tion

®

Transfer of authority to the lower levels.

Demerit of

centraliza-tion

®

Delay in securing action by the field officials.

Demerit of

decentraliza-tion.

®

Unsuitable for dealing with emergencies

92. (B) NCR and Union Territories have the same boundaries.

93. (D)

94. (c) According to J.D. Mooney Co-ordination is the first pri-nciple of organisation.

95. (a)

(i) Pendleton Act U.S.A.—1883

(ii) All India Service Act—1951

(iii) Fulton Committee—1968

(iv) Kothari Commission

—1974-76

96. (b) Persons with specialized educational background enter the civil service in increasing number specialists compete with Generalists in the power-game.

97. (B) Administrative Man’s model represents the real situation by decision making behaviour.

98. (a) According to Gulick three major following factors deter-mine the span of control of an executive.

(i) Element of diversification of functions.

(ii) Element of time.

(iii) Element of space.

99. (c) Development Administration in India is mainly concerned with economic development and promotion of social justice.

100. (d) Span of Control stands for span of communication, span of management, span of units of work and span of attention.

101. (c) The following measures can be taken to reduce staff line conflicts.

(1) Clear demarcation of the responsibilities of the two.

(2) Creation of opportunities for exchanging roles.

(3) Laying emphasis on unity of purpose.

102. (c) Talcott Parsons is known for his Structural-Functional Approach.

103. (d)All the four statements about Comparative Public Admi-nistrative are true.

104. (c) Sequence of steps in Recruitment process—Selection, Appointment Probation and Induction.

105. (C)

106. (B) U.P. State employees welfare corporation is a Government Company.

107. (B) 108. (A)

109. (a) Merit and length of service are the considerations which are taken into account while grant-ing promotion.

110. (c) Election Commission (Article 324) and Finance Commission (Article 280) are the Consti-tutional Commission.

111. (c) According to Barnard leadership depends upon three things—individual, followers and conditions.

112. (c) Greatman theory of leader-ship led to the rise of Trait theory of Leadership.

113. (d) The powers of Parliament in respect of passage of the Budget are enshrined in the Constitution in Art. 112 to 117.

114. (c) The traditional type of budgeting is concerned with line item budgeting.

115. (b) The budget was formally introduced in India in 1860.

116. (a) Administrative decisions in Government can not be evalua-ted through scientific methods because administrative decisions in government involve facts and value premises.

117. (c) Unity of Command means that subordinates must receive command from only one higher official.

118. (b) The classical theorists atta-ched more importance to struc-tural designing of organisation.

119. (d) Behavioural approach stands for use of empirical studies.

120. (A)

COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ

COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ COMPUTER QUIZ

Objective 10 questions


1. Why the document you created at home displays with a different font at school?

Because you have a different printer at school than at home Because you have a different monitor at school than at home

font you used at home is not installed on your school computer Because the version of Windows is different

2. Which keyboard shortcut centers selected text?

Ctrl+C Alt+C There is no keyboard shortcut for this operation Ctrl+E

3. What is the default file extension for all Word documents?

TXT WRD FIL DOC

4. Which key moves your cursor from one cell to the next in a table?

Tab Shift Enter Ctrl+Enter

5. How many different documents can you have open at one time?

No more that three Only one As many as your computer memory will hold No more than your Taskbar can display

6. In order to email a Word document from within Word:

Go to File/Send To/Mail Recipient Save the file as an email attachment Start Outlook and attach the file while open in Word This is an impossible operation

7. Which keystroke will take you at the beginning or the end of a long document?

Ctrl+PageUp and Ctrl+PageDown Shift+Home and Shift+End Ctrl+Home and Ctrl+End The only way is by using the right scroll bar

8. How many margins are on a page?

Two (header and footer) Four (top, bottom, right, left) Two (landscape and Portrait) Two (top and bottom)

9.In order to save a Word document as a web page you need to:

Put the appropriate graphics and links on the document Save the document in simple text format Use your web browser as an editor and save as URL Save as HTML

10. A document in portrait prints:

The same characters per line with the same document in landscape More characters per line than the same document in landscape Less characters per line than the same document in landscape Smaller fonts in order to fit the same amount of characters per line with landscape

CURRRENT GK QUIZ

CURRENT GENERAL AWARENESS QUIZ

OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 10


1. Femina Miss India World award for 2012 has been awarded to –

Vanya Mishra
Prachi Mishra
SimranKaur Mundi
Crystle Stewart

2. Who among the following is the winner of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award for the year 2011? –

Sachin Tendulkar
Saurav Ganguli
Sanjeeva Kumar Singh
Gagan Narang

3. The Mascot of the 2008 Olympic Games was-

Fuwa
Izz
Izz
Cobi

4. Which among the following has won 2012 IPL Tournament?

Chennai Super Kings
Kolkata Knight Riders
Deccon Chargers
Delhi Daredevils

5. Who has written “Unaccustomed Earth” ?

Jhumpa Laheri
Kiran Desai
Arundhati Roy
Khushwant Singh

6. Which of the following has been selected for best parliamentarian of the year award 2007 ?

Priya Ranjan Das Munshi
Mani Shankar Aiyyar
P.Chidambaram
Sushama Swaraj

7. Duwuri Subbarao's name was in news recently as he has taken over as the Governor of
RBI
SBI
SEBI
Bihar

8. ISRO has launched successfully RISAT-1 satellites through PSLV-C19 on -

15th March,2012
30th March,2012
26th April,2012
4th May,2012

9. Which country was host 15th SAARC Summit in 2008 ?

Maldives
Sri Lanka
India
Pakistan

10. Who among the following is the winner of the Wimbledon open Tennis Tournament 2008 of the Women's Single Title ? 

Serena Williams
Venus Wlliams
Maria Sharapova
Ana Ivanovic

Ana Ivanovic