Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Special (Pre.) Exam 2008 Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Special (Pre.) Exam 2008 Solved Paper

(Held on 28-12-2008)

General Studies

1. Cardamom hills lie along the border of—
(A) Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka and Kerala
(C) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(D) Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh

2. Damodar is a tributory of river—
(A) Ganga
(B) Hugli
(C) Padma
(D) Suvarn Rekha

3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Region)
(a) Badam Pahar
(b) Kodarma
(c) Masabani
(d) Rava
List-II (Mineral)
1. Copper
2. Iron ore
3. Petroleum
4. Mica
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 4 1 3

4. Which one of the following regions of India is highly affected by soil erosion ?
(A) Malwa Palteau
(B) U. P. Tarai
(C) Andhra Coast
(D) Chambal Valley

5. Which one of the following four Foreign Banks operating in India, has the largest number of branches in the country ?
(A) City Bank
(B) BNP Paribus Bank
(C) Standard Chartered Bank
(D) HSBC

6. The Mandal Commission whose suggestions have given rise to unabated controversy, was constituted by—
(A) Indira Gandhi
(B) Morarji Desai
(C) Rajiv Gandhi
(D) Vishwa Nath Pratap Singh

7. Recently Pt. Bhimsen Joshi, the renowned classical singer, has been awarded—
(A) Bharat Ratna
(B) Kalidas Samman
(C) Padma Bhushan
(D) Padma Shri

8. Match the following :
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
(a) Gold
(b) Coal
(c) Copper
(d) Iron
1. Khetri
2. Kolar
3. Kudremukh
4. Jharia
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 4 1 3

9. Select the State from amongst the following, with the maximum number of wild-life sanctuaries.
(National Park and Sanctuaries)
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) West Bengal

10. The National Environment Engineering Institute is located in—
(A) Cuttack
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Nagpur
(D) Ranchi

11. Name the Governor of Reserve Bank of India who also became Finance Minister—
(A) H. M. Patel
(B) C. D. Desmukh
(C) C. Subramaniam
(D) Sachin Chaudhari

12. The winner of Booker Prize for the year 2008 was—
(A) Amitav Ghosh
(B) Arvind Adiga
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Sebastian Berry

13. The G-8 group of countries includes—
(A) Britain, China, Germany and Japan
(B) Britain, Japan, South Africa and USA
(C) Britain, France, China and Russia
(D) Britain, Canada, Germany and Italy

14. From the list given below, select the one which is declared a ‘‘World Heritage Site’’.
(A) Corbett National Park
(B) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(C) Rajaji National Park
(D) Gir Forest

15. From the list given below, name the T. V. channel which will cover Engineering and Technology subjects :
(A) Vigyan Darshan
(B) Eklavya
(C) Parivartan
(D) Avishkar

16. The population of a town is 17,71,561. If it had been increasing at 10% per annum, its population 6 years ago was—
(A) 13,31,000
(B) 12,10,000
(C) 11,00,000
(D) 10,00,000

17. If an electric train is moving from North to South, in which direction will smoke from the engine go ?
(A) South-East
(B) North-East
(C) No smoke
(D) South-North

18. Find the missing number in the following figure :


(A) 139
(B) 81
(C) 121
(D) 93

19. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists :
List-I (States)
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Maharashtra
(d) West Bengal
List-II (Governors)
1. G. K. Gandhi
2. S. C. Jamir
3. R. L. Bhatia
4. N. D. Tiwari
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 4 1 2 3
(D) 3 2 4 1

20. Before being elected as US President Barack Obama was Senator from—
(A) Colorado
(B) Florida
(C) Georgia
(D) Illinois

21. If ‘PRINT’ is coded as ‘RUMSZ’, then the code for ‘‘DRINK’’ will be—
(A) FUMSP
(B) FUMSQ
(C) GUMSR
(D) GUMSP

22. The missing number in
0, 4, 18, 48, 100, ………
(A) 170
(B) 180
(C) 196
(D) 216

23. In the following sequence of boxes, the values of X and Y are—


(A) X = f, Y = 200
(B) X = f, Y = 250
(C) X = g, Y = 290
(D) X = g, Y = 343

24. The value of x in the equation
is—

(A) 42
(B) 35
(C) 21
(D) 27

25. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—
(A) 50%
(B) 100%
(C) 125%
(D) 225%

26. The ages of A and B are in the ratio of 6 : 5 and the sum of their ages is 44 years. What will be the ratio of their ages after 8 years ?
(A) 7 : 6
(B) 3 : 4
(C) 8 : 7
(D) 9 : 8

27. A room is 12 metre long, 9 metre broad and 8 metre high. The length of the longest bamboo pole that can be placed in it will be—
(A) 17 metre
(B) 16 metre
(C) 15 metre
(D) 14 metre

28. In the circle below-


AB = 16 cms, OC = 6 cms then the radius of the circle is—
(A) 6 cms
(B) 8•5 cms
(C) 10 cms
(D) 12•5 cms

29. A train starts from station A with some passengers. At station B 10% of the passengers get down and 100 passengers get in. At station C 50% get dwon and 25 get in. At station D 50% get down and 50 get in making the total number of passengers 200. The number of passengers who boarded the train at station A was—
(A) 400
(B) 500
(C) 600
(D) 700

30.


In the above figure, the circle represents ‘‘the powerful’’, the square represents ‘‘the rich’’, and the triangle represents ‘‘the leaders’’. How many are with all the three characteristics ?
(A) 3
(B) 5
(C) 7
(D) 8

31. The missing number in the following series :
4, 8, 9, 27, 16, 64, ……, 125 is—
(A) 90
(B) 35
(C) 25
(D) 20

32. If x–1 – 1 is divided by x – 1, then the quotient is—



33.

In the above diagram, three circles represent businessmen, politicians and the educated respectively. The intersections of the circles give us the numbered space. No. 7 refers to—
(A) Some politicians are educated businessmen
(B) Some educated are businessmen
(C) Some educated are politicians
(D) Some businessmen are politicians

34. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Temples)
(a) Dashavtar Temple
(b) Baba Somnath Temple
(c) Shringi Rishi Temple
(d) Varah Bhagwan Temple
List-II (Districts)
1. Etah
2. Farrukhabad
3. Deoria
4. Lalitpur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1

35. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Centre)
(a) Aonla
(b) Modinagar
(c) Barabanki
(d) Kanpur
List-II (Industry)
1. Polyfibre
2. Fertilizer
3. Rubber
4. Explosives
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 2 4 1
(C) 2 3 1 4
(D) 4 3 2 1

36. Match List-I with List-II and choose your correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I
(a) Munshi Insha Alla Khan
(b) Babu Devki Nandan Khatri
(c) Pt. Pratap Narain Misra
(d) Jai Shankar Prasad
List-II
1. Hathi Hamir
2. Kankal
3. Kajar ki Kothri
4. Udaibhan Charit
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 1 2 3 4

37. Arrange the following four districts of Uttar Pradesh in descending order with regard to Scheduled Tribes population as per 2001 Census. Choose your correct answer with the help of given codes :
1. Sharavasti
2. Balrampur
3. Bahraich
4. Kheri
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(B) 4, 3, 2 and 1
(C) 4, 2, 3 and 1
(D) 2, 4, 1 and 3

38. Folk drama ‘‘Rahula’’ is associated with one of the following regions of U. P. ?
(A) Eastern Region
(B) Western Region
(C) Central Region
(D) Bundelkhand Region

39. The U. P. Financial Corporation does not finance—
(A) The acquisition of permanent assets
(B) Tourism related industries
(C) Long-term working capital requirements
(D) Handloom industries

40. Amir Khusrau played a pioneering role in the development of—
(A) Brij Bhasha
(B) Awadhi
(C) Khari Boli
(D) Bhojpuri

41. Which one of the following crop cycles is considered most suitable for Eastern U. P. ?
(A) Rice/Maize-Wheat
(B) Maize-Potato-Moong
(C) Maize-Rape-Wheat
(D) Cotton-Wheat-Moong

42. Every year a fair is held at the tomb of famous Sufi saint Haji Waris Ali Shah at—
(A) Fatehpur Sikri
(B) Kaliar
(C) Deva Shareef
(D) Garhmukteshwar

43. The functions of the Department of Culture set up to look after the historical, ancient and artistic wealth of UP do not include—
(A) Its preservation and exhibition
(B) Its publication
(C) Its documentation
(D) Its sale

44. Consider the following as objectives of the New Science and Technology Policy, 2003 and state which is/are correctly stated, with the help of codes given below :
1. Optimal utilisation of existing physical and knowledge resources.
2. Development of innovative technologies.
3. Development of system and technologies for mitigation and management of natural hazards.
4. Management of intellectual property.
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 3 and 4 only
(D) All the four

45. Which of the following are the main objective(s) of the Sharda Sahayak Command Development Project ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
I. To increase agricultural production.
II. To change the land use pattern through multiple cropping.
III. To improve land management.
Codes :
(A) I only
(B) I and II only
(C) II and III only
(D) All the above three

46. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
List-I (Ancient Janpads of U. P.)
(a) Kuru
(b) Panchal
(c) Koshal
(d) Vats
List-II (Capitals)
1. Saket
2. Kaushambi
3. Ahichchatra
4. Indraprastha
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 3 1

47. Hydrogen gas can be conveniently used as a fuel for running vehicles it is absorbed at very low temperature by a substance only to be released at the temperature generated by the exhaust.
What is that substance found in India ?
(A) Hydrites
(B) Coals
(C) Soap stone
(D) Resins

48. Radar is used mainly for—
(A) Detecting objects by using light waves
(B) Reflecting sound waves to detect objects
(C) Determining the presence and location of objects with radio waves
(D) Tracking rain bearing clouds

49. The globally programmed ‘‘Human Genome Project’’ deals with—
(A) Establishment of a society of super-humans
(B) Identifiction of races based on apartheid
(C) Genetic improvement of human races
(D) Identification and mapping of human genes and gene sequences

50. Which one of the following is the bioethically non-controversial source of stem cells as an alternative to the highly controversial embryonic stem cells ?
(A) Bone marrow-derived stem cells
(B) Amniotic fluid derived stem cells
(C) Blood of foetus
(D) Blood of babies

51. The Minamata disease of Japan in 1953 was caused by eating fish contaminated by—
(A) Nickel
(B) Lead
(C) Mercury
(D) Cadmium

52. Identify a non-CSIR Institute situated at Lucknow in U. P.—
(A) I. I. S. R.
(B) N. B. R. I.
(C) C-MAP
(D) I. T. R. C.

53. Select with the help of the codes given below, the components of Green Revolution :
1. High yielding variety seeds
2. Irrigation
3. Rural Electrification
4. Rural roads and marketing
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) All the four

54. Which one of the following forms an irreversible complex with haemoglobin of the blood ?
(A) Carbon di-oxide
(B) Pure Nitrogen gas
(C) Carbon-mono-oxide
(D) A mixture of carbon dioxide and helium

55. Given :
1. Blood cells
2. Bone cells
3. Hair strands
4. Saliva
Samples taken for DNA testing in criminal investigation can be—
(A) 1, 2 and 3 only
(B) 1 and 4 only
(C) 2 and 3 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

56. The 21st Winter Olympics is going to be held in—
(A) Moscow
(B) Oslo
(C) Vacouver
(D) Ottawa

57. The winner of 121st Durand Cup, 2008 was—
(A) Churchill Brothers
(B) J. C. T. Mills
(C) Mahindra United
(D) Sporting Club de Goa

58. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Abhinav Bindra—Shooting
(B) Michael Phelps—Swimming
(C) Maria Sharapova—Badminton
(D) Mohammad Asif—Cricket

59. How many gold medals Michael Phelps won in Beijing Olympics ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8

60. In 2010 FIFA 19th World Cup Football Tournament will be held in—
(A) France
(B) Germany
(C) South Africa
(D) Spain

61. India is developing Cryogenic Technology. Which Country/Agency from amongst the following does not possess this technology ?
(A) European Space Agency
(B) Brazil
(C) United States of America (USA)
(D) Japan

62. Which one of the following statements is not correct about Shenzhou-7, the Chinese spacecraft ?
(A) It was manned by four astronauts
(B) It was launched by a Long March 2F rocket
(C) It was for the first time that the Chinese astronauts performed spacewalk
(D) The astronauts returned safely to earth

63. India won Junior Asia Cup Hockey Tournament, held in July 2008 in Hyderabd, by defeating which country in the final ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Pakistan
(C) Japan
(D) China

64. The winner of U. S. Open 2008, Women’s Singles, was—
(A) Dinara Safina
(B) Elena Dementieva
(C) Jalena Jankovic
(D) Serena Williams

65. In 2008 Sachin Tendulkar broke the recored of Brian Lara for most runs in Test Cricket, while playing against Australia in—
(A) Bangalore Test
(B) Mohali Test
(C) Nagpur Test
(D) New Delhi Test

66. ‘‘The Himalayan Mountaineering Institute’’ is located at—
(A) Uttarkashi
(B) Dehradun
(C) Darjeeling
(D) Shillong

67. The mascot of the 19th Commonwealth Games, to be held in 2010 in New Delhi, is—
(A) Shera
(B) Chital
(C) Cheetah
(D) Bhaloo

68. Who has been given the ‘‘Cricketer of the year Award’’ by the ICC in September 2008 ?
(A) D. Steyn
(B) G. Smith
(C) S. Chanderpaul
(D) S. Tendulkar

69. The winner of the World Junior Badminton Championship, held in Pune in October-November 2008, was—
(A) Gurusai Dutt
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Sayako Sato
(D) Shixian Wang

70. Among the following greenhouse gases, which does not cause ozone pollution in troposphere ?
(A) Methane
(B) Carbon mono-oxide
(C) Nitrogen oxides (NOX)
(D) Water vapours

71. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists :
List-I
(a) Stethoscope
(b) Sphygno-manometer
(c) Caratometer
(d) Lux meter
List-II
1. To measure intensity of light
2. To check purity of gold
3. To hear heart sound
4. To measure blood pressure
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 2 1 4 3

72. ‘‘Radioactive dating’’ is a technique which can be used to measure—
(A) The age of rocks
(B) Composition of rocks
(C) Colour of rocks
(D) Weight of rocks

73. ‘Euro norms’ are meant for—
(A) Regulating vehicular speed
(B) Classifying size of the vehicle
(C) Regulating vehicular emission of harmful gases
(D) Specifying power of the engine

74. The disease caused by swelling of the membrane over spinal cord and brain is—
(A) Leukaemia
(B) Paralysis
(C) Sclerosis
(D) Meningitis

75. Which of the following statements are correct ? Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
3. ‘‘Athletic’s foot’’ is a disease caused by virus.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 1 and 2
(D) 2 and 3

76. The ‘Ring of Fire’ is associated with—
1. Earthquake
2. Volcanoes
3. Pacific Ocean
4. Forest Fires
Choose your answer with the help of codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

77. When does heart rest ?
(A) Never
(B) While sleeping
(C) Between two beats
(D) While doing yoga

78. If the doors of a refrigerator are left open for a few hours, the room temperature—
(A) Will decrease
(B) Will increase
(C) Will remain the same
(D) Will decrease only in the area in the vicinity of the refrigerator

79. Match the pollutants with their long-term effects with the help of the given code :
Pollutants
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Oxides of Nitrogen
(c) Soil particles
(d) Lead
Effects
1. Damage to lever and kidney
2. Cancer
3. Ailments related to breathing
4. Central nervous system
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 3 4 1 2

80. Electric motors operating at low voltages tend to burn out because—
(A) They draw more current which is inversely proportional to the voltage
(B) They draw more current which is inversely proportional to the square root of the voltage
(C) They draw heat proportional to v2
(D) Low voltage sets in electrical discharge

81. Which one of the following sites has yielded the cultural remains from Neolithic to Harappan period ?
(A) Amri
(B) Mehrgarh
(C) Kotdiji
(D) Kalibangan

82. Mother of Gautam Buddha belonged to which dynasty ?
(A) Shakya dynasty
(B) Maya dynasty
(C) Lichchavi dynasty
(D) Koliya dynasty

83. Who became the first follower of Mahavira ?
(A) Jamalis
(B) Yashoda
(C) Aanojja
(D) Trishala

84. Which one of the following Buddhist texts speaks of the ‘‘Sixteen Mahajanapadas’’ ?
(A) Anguttar Nikaya
(B) Majjhim Nikaya
(C) Khuddaka Nikaya
(D) Digha Nikaya

85. Earliest evidence of rice cultivation in the Ganga valley has been found at—
(A) Lahuradeva
(B) Senuwar
(C) Sohgaura
(D) Kaushambi

86. Name the Pala King who founded the Vikramshila University—
(A) Dharmapala
(B) Devapala
(C) Ramapala
(D) Gopala

87. In which of the following conditions wet clothes will dry earliest?
(A) 100% RH, 60°C temperature
(B) 100% RH, 20°C temperature
(C) 20% RH, 20°C temperature
(D) 20% RH, 60°C temperature

88. Which rock-shelter in India bears largest number of paintings ?
(A) Ghagharia
(B) Bhimbetka
(C) Lekhahia
(D) Adamgarh

89. In which battle did Mohammad Ghori defeat Jaichand ?
(A) Battle of Tarain (1191 AD)
(B) Battle of Tarain (1192 AD)
(C) Battle of Chandawar (1194 AD)
(D) Battle of Kannauj (1194 AD)

90. Which medieval Indian ruler started the system of ‘‘Patta’’ and ‘‘Qabuliyat’’ ?
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Mohammad Bin Tughlaq
(C) Sher Shah
(D) Akbar

91. In whose reign was the ‘‘Treaty of Chittor’’ signed between the Mughals and Rana of Mewar ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Jehangir
(C) Shahjahan
(D) Aurangzeb

92. In the Vedic period, which animal was known as ‘‘Aghanya’’ ?
(A) Bull
(B) Sheep
(C) Cow
(D) Elephant

93. Who among the following British Officers lost their lives at Lucknow ?
1. General John Nicholson
2. General Neill
3. Major General Havelock
4. Sir Henry Lawrence
Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) All the above

94. ‘‘Jiatrang Movement’’ started in—
(A) Nagaland
(B) Tripura
(C) Manipur
(D) Mizoram

95. Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association founded in 1928 ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Delhi
(C) Allahabad
(D) Lahore

96. Who addressed Gandhiji as the ‘‘Father of the Nation’’ for the first time ?
(A) Subhash Chandra Bose
(B) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(C) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel
(D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

97. The Ghadar Party was formed in—
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Burma
(C) England
(D) United States of America

98. Arrange the following in chronological order. Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Non-Cooperation Movement
2. Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Khilafat Movement
4. Quit India Movement
Codes :
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4
(B) 2, 3, 1, 4
(C) 3, 1, 2, 4
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1

99. In which of the following sessions of Indian National Congress. Mahatma Gandhi had said, ‘‘Gandhi may die but Gandhism will remain forever.’’?
(A) Ramgarh Session, 1940
(B) Lahore Session, 1929
(C) Calcutta Session, 1928
(D) Karachi Session, 1931

100. Sarkaria Commission was set up to review—
(A) the relations between the President and the Prime Minister
(B) the relations between the Legislature and the Executive
(C) the relations between the Executive and the Judiciary
(D) The relations between the Union and the States

101. Which part of the Indian Constitution has been described as the ‘Soul’ of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental rights
(B) Directive Principles of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies

102. The Supreme Court of India is a ‘Court of Record’. It implies that—
(A) It has to keep a record of its decisions
(B) All its decisions have evidentiary value and cannot be questioned in any court
(C) It has the power to punish for its contempt
(D) No appeal can be made against its decisions

103. We have a system of Judicial Review in—
(A) Indian only
(B) U. K. only
(C) U. S. A. only
(D) Both in India and U. S. A.

104. Under which Article of Indian Constitution, President of India enjoys power to withhold his assent on any Bill ?
(A) Article 63
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 109
(D) Article 111

105. Which one of the following States had the lowest per capita income at current prices in the year 2004-05 ?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Orissa
(D) Uttar Pradesh

106. National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (NREGS) was launched initially in 200 districts. In the budget for 2007-08, it was proposed to extend it to—
(A) 280 districts
(B) 300 districts
(C) 310 districts
(D) 330 districts

107. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : There has been a growing demand for review of Centre-State relationship.
Reason (R) : The States have no adequate resources to take up developmental projects.
In the light of above two statements, which one of the following is correct ?
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

108. Among the services sector, which has the highest share in India’s GDP in 2006 ?
(A) Trade, Hotels, Transport and Communications
(B) Finance, Insurance, Real estate and Business Services
(C) Community, social and personal services
(D) Construction of buildings

109. According to the Approach Paper of the 11th Five Year Plan, with the achievement of targeted growth rate and population growing at 1•5 per cent per annum, the real income of the average Indian would double
in—
(A) 5 years
(B) 10 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 20 years

110. Indian Economy has witnessed highest growth rate in GDP in the year—
(A) 2003-04
(B) 2004-05
(C) 2005-06
(D) 2006-07

111. Savings ratio in India at present (2006-07) stands at—
(A) between 20 to 25 per cent of GDP
(B) between 25 to 30 per cent of GDP
(C) between 30 to 32 per cent of GDP
(D) above 32 per cent of GDP

112. HAL is related to manufacturing of—
(A) Telecommunication equipments
(B) Aircrafts
(C) Space missiles
(D) War missiles

113. Which one of the following is not the problem of Small Scale Industries (SSIs) ?
(A) Finances
(B) Marketing
(C) Raw materials
(D) Strikes and lockouts

114. The concept of ‘‘Navratna’’ is associated with—
(A) selected categories of technical manpower
(B) selected export-oriented units
(C) selected food-processing industries
(D) selected Public Sector Enterprises

115. Market in gilt-edged is related to trade in—
(A) metals
(B) debentures
(C) Government Securities
(D) Arms

116. Black soil of India is highly suited for the production of—
(A) Cotton crop
(B) Paddy crop
(C) Sugarcane crop
(D) Wheat crop

117. Which one of the following is evergreen fruit plant ?
(A) Apple
(B) Almond
(C) Peach
(D) Loquat

118. Which one of the following is a rich source of iron ?
(A) Carrot
(B) Pea
(C) Rice
(D) Spinach

119. Which one of the following agriculture practices is ecofriendly ?
(A) Cultivation of high yielding varieties
(B) Growing plants in glass houses
(C) Shifting cultivation
(D) Organic farming

120. The word ‘‘Actuaries’’ is related to—
(A) Banking
(B) Insurance
(C) Share-market
(D) None of the above

121. Capital Market means—
(A) share market
(B) commodity market
(C) money market
(D) All of the above

122. Sarnath Stambh was built by—
(A) Harshwardhan
(B) Ashok
(C) Gautam Buddha
(D) Kanishka

123. This is related to the culture of dance—
(A) Khyal and Baj Lucknow
(B) Banarsi Raj
(C) Rampur Darbar
(D) Agra Gharana

124. ‘Karagam’ a religious folk-dance is associated with—
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamilnadu
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Karnataka

125. The propounder of Yog Philosophy is—
(A) Patanjali
(B) Yogi Gorakhnath
(C) Swami Ramdev
(D) Shankaracharya

126. Which States of India have derived maximum benefits from green revolution ?
(A) Bihar, West Bengal and Assam
(B) Rajasthan, Gujarat and Maharashtra
(C) Punjab, Haryana & Wastern U. P.
(D) Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Kerala

127. In which of the following years, foodgrain production had a negative growth-rate ?
(A) 2001-02
(B) 2003-04
(C) 2004-05
(D) 2005-06

128. In which of the years given below, growth-rate of Indian exports was highest ?
(A) 2002-03
(B) 2003-04
(C) 2004-05
(D) 2005-06

129. In the year 2004-05, following groups had important share in India’s imports :
1. Fuel
2. Capital goods
3. Gold and silver
4. Chemicals
Arrange the aforesaid items in descending order in terms of their percentage share and choose your answer with the help of given codes :
Codes :
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 1, 3, 2, 4
(C) 2, 3, 4, 1
(D) 4, 3, 2, 1

130. During the period 1991-92, the decadal growth of population (in percentage terms) was lowest in the State of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Uttar Pradesh

131. Who among the following has been conferred with Forbes Lifetime Achievement Award, 2008 ?
(A) Ratan Tata
(B) Lakshmi Mittal
(C) B. K. Birla
(D) Bill Gates

132. During 2004-05, which one of the following had the highest share in India’s exports ?
(A) Agriculture and allied products
(B) Ores and minerals
(C) Manufactured goods
(D) Petroleum products

133. Consider following statements as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) :
Assertion (A) : Uttar Pradesh has the largest concentration of India’s population.
Reason (R) : It is also the most densely populated State of India.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and(R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

134. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(A) There has been continuous decline of sex-ratio since 1901 onwards
(B) Highest sex-ratio is observed during the Census of 1901
(C) Lowest sex-ratio has been recorded during the Census of 2001
(D) Maximum decline in the sex-ratio has been recorded during the decade of 1991-2001

135. Arrange the following States of India is descending order of their population-size and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Maharashtra
4. West Bengal
Codes :
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1
(B) 1, 2, 4, 3
(C) 3, 2, 4, 1
(D) 3, 1, 2, 4

136. Which of the following statements are true about the Rajasthan Desert ? Use the codes given below to select the correct answer :
1. It is the most densely populated desert of the world.
2. It is about 10,000 years old mainly caused by excessive human interference.
3. Here only 40 to 60 per cent of the area is suitable for farming.
4. The increase in net sown area has adversely affected the coverage of grazing lands.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

137. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
1. Maharashtra is the most urbanised State of the country.
2. Urban growth along the coast is converting the area into a concrete jungle.
3. From Mumbai to Ahmedabad, the largest megalopolis of the country is in the offing.
4. Cities are full of slums and highly polluted.
Codes :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1, 3 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4

138. Among the following places which one gets the least rainfall ?
(A) Bikaner
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Jodhpur
(D) Leh

139. Which one of the following races is correctly matched ?
(A) Hemites—Uganda
(B) Semites—Malaysia
(C) Sakai—Sudan
(D) Bushman—Botswana

140. In India, the two most urbanised States are—
(A) Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu
(B) Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh
(C) Goa and Mizoram
(D) Gujarat and Karnataka

141. More than one-fourth of India’s urban population lives in the two States of—
(A) Andhra Pradesh and West Bengal
(B) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh

142. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Copenhagen—Denmark
(B) Berlin—Germany
(C) Paris—France
(D) Oslo—Norway

143. The equator passes through—
(A) Ca6meroon
(B) Costa Rica
(C) Kenya
(D) Venezuela

144. Which one of the following ports is not located on the eastern coast of India ?
(A) Chennai
(B) Kandla
(C) Paradwip
(D) Tuticorin

145. According to Census 2001,the percentage of urban population in India, is—
(A) 27•3
(B) 27•8
(C) 28•3
(D) 28•8

146. According to Census 2001, which one of the following States has the highest literacy ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) West Bangal

147. Which one of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?
(A) Dharwar system
(B) Gondwana system
(C) Cudappah system
(D) Vindhyan System

148. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Inland waterways are not well developed in India.
Reason (R) : Most parts of India receive rainfall only for four months in a year.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

149. The Asteroids are small celestial bodies in the solar system which are found between the planets—
(A) Mercury and Venus
(B) Mars and Jupiter
(C) Jupiter and Saturn
(D) Neptune and Saturn

150. Bisrampur is famous for the mining of—
(A) Copper ore
(B) Iron ore
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese

Answers :
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (B) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (C) 27. (A) 28. (C) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (B) 35. (C) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (C)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (D) 45. (A) 46. (B) 47. (B) 48. (C) 49. (D) 50. (C)
51. (C) 52. (A) 53. (A) 54. (C) 55. (D) 56. (C) 57. (C) 58. (C) 59. (D) 60. (C)
61. (B) 62. (A) 63. (A) 64. (D) 65. (B) 66. (C) 67. (A) 68. (C) 69. (B) 70. (D)
71. (C) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (D) 75. (C) 76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (B) 79. (B) 80. (A)
81. (B) 82. (D) 83. (A) 84. (A) 85. (A) 86. (A) 87. (D) 88. (B) 89. (C) 90. (C)
91. (B) 92. (C) 93. (C) 94. (A) 95. (B) 96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (C) 99. (A) 100. (D)
101. (D) 102. (B) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (B) 106. (D) 107. (A) 108. (A) 109. (B) 110. (D)
111. (D) 112. (B) 113. (D) 114. (D) 115. (C) 116. (A) 117. (D) 118. (D) 119. (D) 120. (B)
121. (A) 122. (B) 123. (C) 124. (B) 125. (A) 126. (C) 127. (C) 128. (C) 129. (A) 130. (C)
131. (B) 132. (C) 133. (C) 134. (B) 135. (C) 136. (A) 137. (C) 138. (D) 139. (D) 140. (C)
141. (D) 142. (D) 143. (C) 144. (B) 145. (B) 146. (A) 147. (B) 148. (B) 149. (B) 150. (C)

VIJAYA BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICERS EXAM 2008 REASONING ABILITY SOLVED PAPER

Vijaya Bank Probationary Officers Exam 2008 Solved Paper

(Held on 2-3-2008)

Reasoning Ability

1. ‘34’ is related ‘12’ in the same way as ‘59’ is related to—
(A) 45
(B) 14
(C) 42
(D) 38
(E) 47

2. What should come next in the following number sequence ?
2 2 3 2 3 4 2 3 4 5
2 3 4 5 6 2 3 4 5 6
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 3
(E) None of these

3. Among P, Q, R, S, T and U, R is taller than only P and U. S is shorter than only T and Q. If each of them has a different height, who among them will be the third from top when they are arranged in descending order of their height ?
(A) R
(B) P
(C) S
(D) Q
(E) None of these

4. Vikas walked 10 metres towards North, took a left turn and walked 15 metres and again took a left turn and walked 10 metres and stopped walking. Towards which direction was he facing when he stopped walking ?
(A) South
(B) South-West
(C) South-East
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) B D
(B) C E
(C) G I
(D) F H
(E) NL

6. How many such 7s are there in the following number sequence each of which is immediately preceded by 5 and not immediately followed by 8 ?
2 3 5 7 8 9 3 4 5 7 6 1 9 3
5 7 4 8 3 2 5 7 8 8 9 2 5
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

7. If it is possible to form a number with the first, the fourth and the seventh digits of the number 4671358, which is the perfect sequare of a two-digit odd number, which of the following will be the digit in the tenth place of that two-digit odd number ? If no such number can be formed, give ‘O’ as the answer and if more than one such number can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer—
(A) 2
(B) 9
(C) 3
(D) O
(E) X

8. Among P, Q, R, S and T, Q is younger than only S and R and older than T. Who among them is the oldest ?
(A) S
(B) R
(C) P
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

9. In a certain code ‘59346’ is written as ‘$AD%F’ and ‘8173’ is written as ‘HB#D’. How is ‘9865’ written in that code ?
(A) H A F $
(B) A F H $
(C) A D F $
(D) B H F $
(E) None of these

10. If ‘M’ denotes ‘÷’, ‘K, denotes ‘–’, ‘T’ denotes ‘×’ and ‘R’ denotes ‘+’, then—
20 K 16 T 8 M 4 R 6 = ?
(A) 18
(B) – 6
(C) – 12
(D) – 18
(E) None of these

11. Pointing to a boy, Meena said “He is the only grandson of my grandfather”. How is the boy related to Meena ?
(A) Brother
(B) Cousin
(C) Uncle
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

12. B is sister of D. M is father of D. N. is sister of M. How is B related to N ?
(A) Sister
(B) Aunt
(C) Niece
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

13. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Fruit
(B) Flower
(C) Leaf
(D) Petal
(E) Tree

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) 26
(B) 34
(C) 72
(D) 46
(E) 38

15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Cuckoo
(B) Crow
(C) Bat
(D) Parrot
(E) Sparrow

16. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word TERMINATE each of which has as many letters between them in the word as in the English alphabet ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

17. If it is possible to make only one meaningful English word with the second, the fifth, the sixth and the tenth letters of the word STREAMLINE, which of the following will be the third letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as the answer and if more than one such word can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer—
(A) E
(B) A
(C) M
(D) X
(E) Y

Directions (Q. 18 to 24)—In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by three conclusions numbered I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

18. Statements : Some blades are papers. Some papers are books. Some books are pens.
Conclusions :I. Some pens are papers.
II. Some books are blades.
III. Some pens are blades.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) None follows
(E) Only II and III follow

19. Statements : Some pencils are marbles. All marbles are buses. Some buses are trucks.
Conclusions :I. Some trucks are pencils.
II. Some buses are pencils.
III. No truck is pencil.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only either I or III and II follow
(D) Only either I or III follows
(E) None of these

20. Statements : Some trees are jungles. Some jungles are flowers. All flowers are streets.
Conclusions :I. Some streets are jungles.
II. Some streets are trees.
III. Some flowers are trees.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only II follows
(C) Only III follows
(D) Only I and II follow
(E) None of these

21. Statements : All desks are tables. All tables are chairs. Some chairs are sofas.
Conclusions :
I. Some sofas are desks.
II. Some chairs are desks.
III. Some tables are desks.
(A) Only I and II follow
(B) Only II and III follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) All follow
(E) None of these

22. Statements : Some cycles are bikes. No bike is flower. All flowers are goats.
Conclusions :I. No goat is cycle.
II. Some flowers are cycles.
III. Some goats are bikes.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow

23. Statements : All rivers are hills. All hills are rocks. Some rocks are sticks.
Conclusions :I. Some sticks are hills.
II. Some sticks are rivers.
III. Some rocks are rivers.
(A) None follows
(B) Only I follows
(C) Only II follows
(D) Only III follows
(E) Only II and III follow

24. Statements : All tyres are cars. All wheels are cars. All cars are trains.
Conclusions :I. All tyres are trains.
II. Some trains are wheels.
III. Some trains are cars.
(A) Only I follows
(B) Only I and II follow
(C) Only I and III follow
(D) Only II and III follow
(E) All follow

Directions (Q. 25 to 32)—In each questions below is given a group of letters followed by four combinations of symbols and digits lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D). You have to find out which of the combinations correctly represents the group of letters based on the following codes and conditions and mark the letter of that combination as the answer. If none of the four combinations correctly represents the group of letters, mark (E) i.e. ‘None of these’ as the answer.
Letter :
B M K A T R E U N H F I WD P
Digit/Symbol Code :
7 % 5 © 6 9 8 2 @ 1 # $ 3 ♦ 4
Conditions :(i) If the first letter is a vowel and the last letter is a consonant, both are to be coded as the code for the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel, codes for these two are to be interchanged.
(iii) If both the first and the last letters are consonants, both are to be coded as the code for the last letter.
Now based on the above, find out coded form of the letter groups given in each question.

25. RNWDEF
(A) 9 @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(B) # @ 3 ♦ 8 #
(C) # @ 3 ♦ 8 9
(D) # 3 ♦ @ 8 #
(E) None of these

26. MATRBW
(A) % © 6 9 7 3
(B) 3 © 6 9 7 3
(C) % © 6 9 7 %
(D) 3 © 6 9 7 %
(E) None of these

27. EDPKTA
(A) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 ©
(B) © ♦ 4 5 6 8
(C) 8 ♦ 4 5 6 8
(D) 8 ♦ 5 4 6 ©
(E) None of these

28. ABUHFI
(A) © 2 1 7 # $
(B) © 7 2 1 # ©
(C) $ 7 2 1 # $
(D) © 7 2 # 1 $
(E) None of these

29. WPTMBI
(A) $ 4 6 % 7 3
(B) 3 4 6 % 7 $
(C) 3 4 6 % 7 3
(D) $ 4 6 % 7 $
(E) None of these

30. FHITWU
(A) # 1 $ 6 3 #
(B) 2 1 $ 6 3 2
(C) # 1 # 6 3 2
(D) 2 1 $ 6 3 #
(E) None of these

31. HUDBRE
(A) 1 2 7 ♦ 9 8
(B) 1 2 ♦ 7 9 8
(C) 8 2 ♦ 7 9 1
(D) 8 ♦ 2 7 9 1
(E) None of these

32. IMPNWK
(A) 5 % 4 @ 3 $
(B) $ % 4 @ 3 5
(C) $ % 4 @ 3 $
(D) 5 % 4 @ 3 5
(E) None of these

Directions (Q. 33 to 40)—Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :
A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input : 51 pour 32 start now 23 46 house
Step I : 23 51 pour 32 start now 46 house
Step II : 23 start 51 pour 32 now 46 house
Step III : 23 start 32 51 pour now 46 house
Step IV : 23 start 32 pour 51 now 46 house
Step V : 23 start 32 pour 46 51 now house
Step VI : 23 start 32 pour 46 now 51 house
and step VI is the last step of the rearrangement.
As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.

33. Step II of an input is :18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31 How many more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these

34. Input :
72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey How many steps will take to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these

35. Input :
nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56
Which of the following will be step III ?
(A) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
(B) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56
(C) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56
(D) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56
(E) None of these

36. Step II of an input is :
16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Which of the following will be step V ?
(A) 16 victory 19 town store 36 53 lake
(B) 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake
(C) 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
(D) There will be no such step
(E) None of these

37. Step III of an input is
15 yes 29 ask for soap 42 37
Which of the following is definitely the input ?
(A) ask yes 29 15 for soap 42 37
(B) yes ask 15 29 for soap 42 37
(C) 29 15 yes ask for soap 42 37
(D) Cannot be determined
(E) None of these

38. Input :
milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Which of the following steps will
be the last but one ?
(A) VI
(B) V
(C) VII
(D) VIII
(E) None of these

39. Step III of an input is :
36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen How many more steps will required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Three
(B) Four
(C) Five
(D) Six
(E) None of these

40. Input :
new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join
How many steps will be required to complete the rearrangement ?
(A) Four
(B) Five
(C) Six
(D) Seven
(E) None of these

Directions (Q. 41 to 45)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below :

P, Q, R, S, T, V and W are seven friends working in a call center. Each of them has different day offs in a week from Monday to Sunday not necessarily in the same order. They work in three different shifts I, II and III with at least two of them in each shift.

R works in shift II and his day off is not Sunday. P’s day off is Tuesday and he does not work in the same shift with either Q or W. None of those who work in shift I has day off either on Wednesday or on Friday. V works with only T in shift III. S’s day off is Sunday. V’s day off is immediate next day of that of R’s day off. T’s day off is not on Wednesday. W’s day off is not on the previous day of P’s day off. S works in shift I. Q does not work in the same shift with R and his day off is not on Thursday.

41. Which of the following is W’s day off ?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Monday
(C) Saturday
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

42. Which of the following is R’s day off ?
(A) Friday
(B) Thursday
(C) Tuesday
(D) Wednesday
(E) None of these

43. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift II ?
(A) RP
(B) RV
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

44. Which of the following is Q’s day off ?
(A) Friday
(B) Wednesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Monday
(E) None of these

45. Which of the following groups of friends work in shift I ?
(A) RV
(B) RP
(C) QWS
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these

Directions (Q. 46 to 50)—In each question below is given a statement followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You have to consider the statement and the following assumptions and decide which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement give the answer—
(A) If only Assumption I is implicit.
(B) If only Assumption II is implicit.
(C) If either I or II is implicit.
(D) If neither I nor II is implicit.
(E) If both I and II are implicit.

46. Statement : A nationalized bank issued an advertisement in the national dailies asking the eligible candidates for applying for 100 posts of chartered accountants.
Assumptions :
I. The eligible chartered accountants may respond to the advertisement.
II. There may be adequate number of eligible chartered accountants who may want to join a nationalized bank.

47. Statement : The municipal authority announced before the onset of monsoon that the roads within the city will be free of potholes during monsoon.
Assumptions :
I. The roads were repaired so well that potholes may not reappear.
II. People may not complain even if the potholes reappear.

48. Statement : “Our Europe Holiday Package costs less than some of the holiday Packages within the country”—An advertisement by an Indian travel company.
Assumptions :
I. People may prefer to travel to foreign destinations than to the places within the country at comparable cost.
II. People generally take their travel decisions after getting information from such advertisements.

49. Statement : The retail vegetable vendors increased the prices of vegetables by about 20 per cent due to non-availability of vegetables at lower prices at the wholesale market.
Assumptions :
I. The customers may totally stop buying vegetables at higher prices.
II. The customers may still buy vegetables from the retail vendors.

50. Statement : A large number of students and parents stood in the queue to collect forms for admission to various under-graduate courses in the college.
Assumptions :
I. The college authority may be able to admit all those who stood in the queue.
II. The college authority may have adequate number of forms for all those standing in the queue.

Directions (Q. 51 to 56)—Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the questions given below :
M 4 E T % J 9 I B @ U 8 © N # W F 1 V 7 ♦ 2 A H 3 Y 5 $ 6 K

51. Which of the following is the ninth to the right of the seventeenth fom the right end of the above arrangement ?
(A) A
(B) %
(C) I
(D) Y
(E) None of these

52. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement ?
4 T % 9 B @ 8 N # F V 7 ?
(A) 2 H 3
(B) 2 H Y
(C) ♦ A H
(D) ♦ A 3
(E) None of these

53. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) J I T
(B) 3 5 A
(C) $ K Y
(D) A 3 ♦
(E) 8 © @

54. How many such vowels are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a number and immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four

55. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately followed by a symbol and immediately preceded by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

56. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant but not immediately followed by a consonant ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three

Directions (Q. 57 to 63)—In the following questions, the symbols $, @, ©, % and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :

‘P $ Q’ means ‘P is not smaller than Q’.
‘P @ Q’ means ‘P is not greater than Q’.
‘P © Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor equal to Q’.
‘P % Q’ means ‘P is neither smaller than nor equal to Q’.
‘P # Q’ means ‘P is neither greater than nor smaller than Q’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the conclusions I, II and III given below them is / are definitely true and give your answer accordingly.

57. Statements : M © T, T @ J, J # D
Conclusions :
I. D # T
II. D % T
III. D % M
(A) All are true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only either I or II is true
(E) Only either I or II and III are true

58. Statements : H $ J, J © M, M @ T
Conclusions :
I. H % M
II. H $ T
III. T % J
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only III is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these

59. Statements : R @ N, N % E, E # K
Conclusions :
I. R © K
II. K % N
III. E % R
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true

60. Statements : M © K, K % T, T $ R
Conclusions :
I. R © K
II. R © M
III. T © M
(A) Only I is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I and II are true
(E) None of these

61. Statements : D # W, W $ Z, Z % M
Conclusions :
I. Z @ D
II. M © D
III. D $ M
(A) Only I and II are true
(B) Only II and III are true
(C) Only I and III are true
(D) All are true
(E) None of these

62. Statements : K % N, N $ B, B © D
Conclusions :
I. D % N
II. K % D
III. B © K
(A) None is true
(B) Only II is true
(C) Only III is true
(D) Only I is true
(E) Only II and III are true

63. Statements : T # A, A $ B, B @ D
Conclusions :
I. D # A
II. D # T
III. B @ T
(A) None is true
(B) Only I is true
(C) Only II is true
(D) Only III is true
(E) Only II and III are true

Directions (Q. 64 to 70)—Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Following are the conditions for selecting Manager-Finance in an organisation. The candidate must—
(i) Be a graduate in any discipline with at least 50 per cent marks.
(ii) Be a post-graduate in Management with specialization in Finance.
(iii) Be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years as on 1.2.2008.
(iv) Have post qualification work experience of at least two years in the Accounts/Finance department of an organization.
(v) Have secured at least 40 per cent marks in the selection process.

In the case of a candidate who satisfies all other criteria EXCEPT—
(a) At (ii) above, but has worked as Deputy Manager—Finance in an organization for at least three years, his/her case is to be referred to General Manager-Finance.
(b) At (v) above, but has secured at least 70 per cent marks in post graduation, his/her case is to be referred
to President-Finance.

In each question below, detailed information of one candidate is provided. You have to take one of the following courses of action based on the information provided and the conditions and sub-conditions given above and mark your answer accordingly. You are not to assume anything other than the information provided in case of each candidate.

All these cases are given to you as on 1.2.2008, mark answer—
(A) If the candidate is not to be selected.
(B) If the data provided are not adequate to take a decision.
(C) If the case is to be referred to General Manager-Finance.
(D) If the case is to be referred to President-Finance.
(E) If the candidate is to be selected.

64. Neeta Kothari was born on 10th September 1975. She has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing her MBA with Finance specialization. She has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process.

65. Gopal Sharma has secured 60 per cent marks in graduation. He has been working in the Finance Dept. of an organization for the past four years after completing his MBA in Finance with 75 per cent marks. He was born on 25th may 1978. He has secured 39 per cent marks in the selection process.

66. Sikha Dwivedi was born on 8th March 1975. She has secured 60 per cent marks in both graduation and post graduation. She has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing her post graduation. She has secured 65 per cent marks in the selection process.

67. Samir Malhotra has secured 55 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBAFinance. He has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past four years after completing his MBA. He was born on 24th February 1980. He has secured 60 per cent marks in the selection process.

68. Somnath Banerjee was born on July 8, 1972. He has secured 65 per cent marks in both graduation and MBA-Finance. He has also secured 70 percent marks in the selection process. He has been working in the Accounts Dept. of an organization for the past three years after completing his MBA.

69. Ashok Chandra has secured 70 per cent marks in graduation and 65 per cent marks in MBAFinance. He has been working for the past three years in the Finance Dept. of an organization after completing his MBA. He has secured 35 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 16th December 1979.

70. Avinash Chopra has been working as Deputy Manager. Finance in an organization for the past four years after completing graduation with 65 per cent marks. He has also done a diploma in Finance Management. He has secured 55 per cent marks in the selection process. He was born on 3rd April, 1978.

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (E) 6. (C)
7. (A) 1st, 4th and 7th digits of the number 4 6 7 1 3 5 8 and 4, 1 and 8 respectively. The number formed with these digits is 841 which is the perfect square of two digit odd number 29. The digit at 10th place it is 2.
8. (D) 9. (E) 10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (B)
13. (E) All the rest are the parts of a tree.
14. (C)
15. (C) All the rest birds can see.
16. (C)
17. (E) 2nd, 5th, 6th and 10th letters of the word STREAMLINE are T, A, M and E respectively. The meaningful words formed with these letters are : TEAM, TAME, MEAT and MATE.
18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (A) 21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (E)
25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (E) 29. (A) 30. (D) 31. (C) 32. (C)
33. (C) Step II : 18 task bear cold dish 81 63 31
Step III : 18 task 31 bear cold dish 81 63
Step IV : 18 task 31 dish bear cold 81 63
Step V : 18 task 31 dish 63 bear cold 81
Step VI : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold bear 81
Step VII : 18 task 31 dish 63 cold 81 bear
Hence, 5 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
34. (D) Input : 72 59 37 go for picnic 24 journey
Step I : 24 72 59 37 go for picnic journey
Step II : 24 picnic 72 59 37 go for journey
Step III : 24 picnic 37 72 59 go for journey
Step IV : 24 picnic 37 journey 72 59 go for
Step V : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 72 go for
Step VI : 24 picnic 37 journey 59 go 72 for
Hence, VI steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
35. (A) Input # nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56.
Step I : 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56.
Step II : 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56.
Step III : 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56
36. (D) Step II : 16 victory 19 36 53 store lake town
Step III : 16 victory 19 town 36 53 store lake
Step IV : 16 victory 19 town 36 store 53 lake There is no V step.
37. (D)
38. (B) Input : milk pot 18 24 over goal 36 53
Step I : 18 milk pot 24 over goal 36 53
Step II : 18 pot milk 24 over goal 36 53
Step III : 18 pot 24 milk over goal 36 53
Step IV : 18 pot 24 over milk goal 36 53
Step V : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk goal 53
Step VI : 18 pot 24 over 36 milk 53 goal
The last step is VI.
Hence, the prelast step is V.
39. (A) Step III : 36 win 44 95 86 ultra box queen
Step IV : 36 win 44 ultra 95 86 box queen
Step V : 36 win 44 ultra 86 95 box queen
Step VI : 36 win 44 ultra 86 queen 95 box.
Hence, 3 more steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
40. (A) Input : new 22 model 27 pump 38 11 join.
Step I : 11 new 22 model 27 pump 38 join.
Step II : 11 pump new 22 model 27 38 join.
Step III : 11 pump 22 new model 27 38 join.
Step IV : 11 pump 22 new 27 model 38 join.
Hence, four steps will be required to complete the rearrangement.
41. (C) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (D) 45. (C) 46. (E) 47. (A) 48. (E) 49. (D) 50. (B)
51. (A) 17th from the right end is N and 9th to the right from N is A.
52. (A) 53. (E) 54. (D) 55. (C) 56. (B) 57. (E) 58. (B) 59. (A) 60. (A) 61. (D) 62. (C) 63. (D)
64. (B) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Neeta Kothari in graduate examination.
65. (D) Gopal Sharma fulfils all the conditions excepts (v) and accordingly to (b) he obtained marks in M.B.A. more than 70%. So his case will be referred to President-Finance.
66. (A) Sikha Dwivedi neither fulfils the condition (ii) nor (a). Hence she is not to be selected.
67. (E) Samir Malhotra fulfils all the conditions. So he is to be selected.
68. (A) The age of Somnath Banerjee is more than 35 years. So he is not to be selected.
69. (A) Ashok Chandra neither fulfils the condition (v) nor (b). Hence, he is not to be selected.
70. (C) Nothing is said about the marks obtained by Avinash Chopra, but according to condition (a), all are fulfil except condition (ii). The case is to be referred to General Manager Finance.