GENERAL SCIENCE : EXPECTED QUESTIONS

GENERAL SCIENCE : EXPECTED QUESTIONS

1. Metals are heated by ---
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Radiation
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
2. Instrument used to measure the humidity of the air?
a. Hydrometer
b. Hygrometer
c. Seismometer
d. Barometer
e. None
3. Temperature at which water posses the maximum density?
a. 0 degree Celsius
b. 4 degree Celsius
c. -4 degree Celsius
d. 0 degree Fahrenheit
e. None
4. If horse starts suddenly rider may fall due to ------?
a. Moment of inertia
b. Law of conservation of the mass
c. Inertia of rest
d. Third law of motion
e. None
5. Pieces of iron does not fall on water because -------?
a. Mass of the water displaced is less than that of iron
b. Mass of the water displaced is more than that of iron
c. Mass of the water displaced is equal to iron
d. It displaces no water
e. None
6. Type of mirror used by the dentist to concentrate light on the tooth to be examined?
a. Concave
b. Convex
c. Plane
d. Biconcave
7. Brass is alloy where as air is a ------?
a. Gas
b. Mixture
c. Compound
d. Solution
e. None
8. If the man weighs 1200newton in the earth how much is his weight in the moon?
a. 100N
b. 200N
c. 300N
d. 400N
e. None
9. The apparent depth of the quantity of the liquid in the vessel is 15 cm, if the real depth is 20 cm, then the refractive index of the liquid is -------?
a. .56
b. 1.33
c. 34
d. 4.3
e. None
10. Inner back surface of the eye is called as -------?
a. Pupil
b. Retina
c. Choroids
d. Cornea
e. None
11. At hills, water boils at temperature of ------?
a. Less than 100 degree Celsius
b. More than 100 degree Celsius
c. 100 degree Celsius
d. 200 degree Celsius
e. None
12. Boyle’s law is applicable at --------?
a. Constant pressure
b. Constant temperature
c. Constant temperature and pressure
d. Variable temperature
e. None
13. Three bulbs with power rating of 40 W, 60W, 100 W are connected in series to a 220 V mains, the energy consumption will be -----?
a. Highest for 100 W bulb
b. Highest for 60 W bulb
c. Highest for 40 W bulb
d. Same for all three bulbs
e. None
14. Liquid drop is spherical due to ---?
a. Viscosity
b. Atmospheric pressure
c. Small weight
d. Surface tension
e. None
15. Which of the following instruments convert the mechanical energy into electrical energy?
a. Transformer
b. Motor
c. Electrometer
d. Barometer
e. None
16. Which of the following statement is wrong?
a. Blood is acidic
b. Bile juice is secreted by the liver
c. Gastric juice contains HCL
d. Bile juice is alkaline
e. None
17. Which of the following is caused by the bacteria?
a. Small pox
b. Dysentery
c. Influenza
d. Cholera
e. None
18. Which of the following is the not the function of the kidney?
a. Regulation of the BP
b. Secretion of the antibiotics
c. Removal of the urine
d. Regulation of the acidity of the urine
e. None
19. An electron carries ---------?
a. A unit negative charge
b. A unit positive charge
c. Two unit of negative charge
d. Two unit of the positive charge
e. None
20. Which of the following is used for cancer treatment?
a. Vinblastine
b. Sacharromysine
c. Adrenaline
d. Noradrenalin
e. None
21. Carborundum is used as ------?
a. A fertilizer
b. A paint
c. A medicine
d. A alkaline agent
e. None
22. Increased serum creatine level is a sign of ------?
a. Head damage
b. Kidney damage
c. Lung damage
d. Heart damage
e. None
23. Most harmful radiation for the man is -------?
a. Alpha rays
b. Beta rays
c. Gamma rays
d. UV rays
e. None
24. PSA is the test used to diagnose -----?
a. Prostatic cancer
b. Lung cancer
c. Bladder cancer
d. Breast cancer
e. None
25. Chloroquine is the drug used to treat -------?
a. Rabies
b. Malaria
c. Gas gangrene
d. Tetanus
e. None

ANSWERS
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A 6. A 7. B 8. B 9. B
10. B 11. A 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. E 16. A 17. D 18. B
19. A 20. A 21. E 22. B 23. D 24. A 25. B

RRB Allahabad Sr. Clerk Exam., 2008 Solved Paper

RRB Allahabad Sr. Clerk Exam., 2008

(Held on 12-10-2008)

1. Trasfer of heat through horizontal movement of air is called

(A) Advection

(B) Convection

(C) Conduction

(D) Radiation

Ans (A)

2. Which of the following revers is referred to as "Dakshin Ganga"

(A) Krishna

(B) Godavari

(C) Mahanadi

(D) Cauvery

Ans (B)

3. The clouds float in atmosphere because of their low-

(A) Temperature

(B) Viscosity

(C) Pressure

(D) Density

Ans (D)

4. Which one is the first atomic plant established in India?

(A) Kaiga

(B) Tarapur

(C) Narora

(D) Kota

Ans (B)

5. Who presides over the meeting of the council of ministers?

(A) The prime Minister

(B) The President

(C) Cabinet secretary

(D) Lok Sabha Speaker

Ans (A)

6. What is the minimum age required to become Prime Minister of India?

(A) 18 Years

(B) 21 Years

(C) 25 Years

(D) 35 Years

Ans (C)

7. Which of the following gases is used in the artificial ripening of fruits?

(A) Acetylene

(B) Ethylene

(C) Methane

(D) Ethane

Ans (B)

8. The light waves are -

(A) Electric Waves

(B) Magnetic Waves

(C) Electromagnetic Waves

(D) Electrostatic Waves

Ans (C)

9. Which of the folowing process produce Hydrogen gas?

(A) Electrolysis of water

(B) Passing of steam over red hot iron

(C) Reaction of Zinc with Hydrochloric acid

(D) All of these

Ans (D)

10. The hydraulic brakes used in automobiles is a direct application of -

(A) Archmedes' Principle

(B) Pascal's Law

(C) Bernoulli's Theorem

(D) Faraday's Law

Ans (B)

11. Which of the following planet orbits around the sun in background direction from east to west?

(A) Earth

(B) Mercury

(C) Venus

(D) Jupiter

Ans (B)

NOTE : Fully solved paper will be post very soon. wait

till....

UPSC (IAS) Mains General Studies Paper (2007)

UPSC (IAS) Mains General Studies Paper (2007)

GENERAL STUDIES - Paper- I

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question.

1. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30

(a) What was the character of social religious reforms in the 19th Century and how did they contribute to the national awakening in India?

(b) The crisis of the colonial order during 1919 and 1939 was directly linked to the constitutional reforms, disillusionment and militant anti-colonial struggles. Elucidate.

2. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each) : 15x2 = 30

(a) What are the salient features of the Government of India Acts of 1858 and 1909?

(b) Do you think Mahatma Gandhi's support to Khilafat Movement had diluted his secular credentials? Give your argument based on the assessment of events.

(c) Evaluate the contribution of revolutionary terrorism represented by Bhagat Singh to the cause of India’s Struggle of independence.

3. Write about the following (not 20 words each) : 2x15 = 30

(a) Age of Sangam Literature

(b) Bhakti

(c) Ashtadhyayi of Panini

(d) Charvakas

(e) Ajivikas

(f) Gandhara Art

(g) Mlechchas

(h) Lingayats

(i) Megasthenes

(j) R. C. Dutt

(k) Nagarjunakonda

(1) Pastoralism

(m) Rudramadevi

(n) Sati

(0) Ramanuja

4. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 125 words each) : l0x2=20

(a) Explain how the Himalayan and the Tibetan highlands play an important role in the development of the South West monsoon.

(b) Technological changes have brought in a major shift in the use of roads as transport corridors in India. How far do you agree with this view?

(c) Explain the nature and causes of growing slum problems in the metropolitan cities of India.

5. Write notes on the following (in about 20 words each): 2 x 5= 10

(a) Special Economic Zone (SEZ)

(b) Inceptisol

(c) Jarawas

(d) Indira Point

(e) Causes of Chambal Ravines

6. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words) : 30

(a) What is a Constitution? What are the main sources of the Indian Constitution?

(b) Bring out the differences between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy. Discuss some of the measures taken by the Union and State Governments for the implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

7. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30

(a). What is regionalism ? In which way regionalism has affected the Indian Polity.

(b). what are the Main determination of voting behavior in India?

8. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 150 words each): 15x2 = 30

(a) What are the exceptions when the President of India is not bound by the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers?

(b) What is pro tem Speaker?

(e) Under what circumstances, Parliament may legislate on State subjects?

9. Answer the following questions (in about 20 words each): 2 x 5 = 10

(a). What is criminalization of politics?

(b). How president of India elected?

(c). what is casting vote?

(d). what is the difference between council of Minister and Cabinet?

(e). what is the importance of Right to constitutional remedies?

10. Answer anyone of the following questions (in about 250 words): 30

(a). what were the main recommendations of the Platform for Action (PFA) adopted at the Beijing Women Conference 1995?

(b) Discuss the steps to get rid of child labour in India.

11. Answer any two of the following questions (in about 125 words each): l0x2=20

(a) What is stealth technology?

(b) Differentiate between Natural and Cultural heritage.

(c) What is value-based politics?

12. Write notes on any two of the following (in about 125 words each) : I0x2=20

(a) Integrated Child Services (lCDS) Development

(b) Prime Minister's 5-point agenda for India's development as a knowledge society

(c) The Lokpal Bill.

13. Write short notes on the following ( in about 20 words each ) 2 x 5 = 10

(a) Yakshagana

(h) PACE.

(c) Footloose Industries

(d) The Statue of Liberty

(e) Genome



GENERAL STUDIES

aper- II

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 300

INSTRUCTIONS

Candidates should attempt all question strictly in accordance with the instructions given under each questions. The number of marks carried by each question is indicated at the end of the question

1. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words): 15x2=30

(a) Indo-Russian Defence Co-operation

(b) India's response, to political crisis In Bangladesh

(c) Elaborate on India's Nuclear Doctrine

2. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 wordS): 2x5= I 0

(a) SAFTA

(b) India and East Asia Summit (EAS)

(c) Shanghai Cooperation Organization, (S.C.O.)

(d) Panchsheel in India's Foreign Policy

(e) Relevance of NAM

3. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words) : 2x5=10

(a) Pravasi Bhartiya Bima Yojana, 2006

(b) Indian All-Women Contingent to Liberia

(c) Madheshis in Nepal

(d) Know India Programme (KIP)

(e) Ministry of Overseas Indian Affairs

4. Answer anyone of the following (in about 250 words): 30

(a). What is Dumping? Evaluate the remedial measures taken by Government of India vis-à-vis WTO provisions regarding dumping.

(b) Comment on the relationship between credit availability and agricultural growth in India.

5. Answer any two of the following (answer to each question should be in about 150 words )

(a). What is the meaning and aim of social forestry ? What are the main weakness noticed in social forestry programme?

(b). Bring out the main objective of Rastriya Krishi Bima Yojana. The scheme is being implemented by which agency.

(c). Explain Mega Food park Scheme of Government of India.

6. Write about the following (answer to each question should be in about 20 words ) : 2x15 = 30

(a) Explain the term Merit Goods

(b) What is Cheap Money?

(c) What is Countervailing Duty?

(d) What is Hot Money?

(e). Explain the Concept Trickle Down Theory

(f) What is Stagflation?

(g) What is Engel's Law?

(h) Meaning of CCIL

(i) What is Administered Price?

(j) What is Venture Capital?

(k) Explain the term Balance on Current Account

(I) What is Consolidated Fund?

(m) What is Budget Deficit?

(n) Explain the term Most Favored Nations

(0) Meaning of Capital- Output Ratio

7. Write about any two of the following (in about 150 words each): 15x2=30

(a) Impact of globalization on state system and its institutions

(b) SAARC Summit 2007

(c) The UN conference on Environment and Development (The Earth Summit)

8. Write about the following (in about 20 words each): 2x5 = 10

(a) G-8 Summit 2007

(b) Hyde Act of 2006

(c) Global Governance

(d) Operation Silence

(e) SAARC Human Rights Report 2006

9. Write about the following by expanding and explaining the objectives (in about 20 Words each): 2x5=10

(a) ICT4D

(b) BEMs

(c) IAEA

(d) BIMSTEC

(e) ECJ

10. Answer any one of the following in about 250 words: 30

(a). Explain the phenomenon of ozone depletion, its cause and effects . What efforts are needed to reduce it.

(b). what do you understanding by the term ‘biodiversity’? Examine the cause and consequence of degeneration of biodiversity?

11. Answer any two of the following (answer for each question should be in about 150 words) : 15x2=30

(a) What are the alterative fuels available for the transport sector? Discuss their characteristics, advantages 'and disadvantages in their utilization.

(b) Explain the objectives and the current achievements of human genome project.

(c) Discuss the missile technology initiatives undertaken by India.

12. Answer all the five (in about 20 words each) : 2x5=10

(a) What is firewall ? (b) What is mal ware ?

(c) What do the following stand for?

(i) MPEG (ii) ISP

(iii) HTML (iv) ASCII

(d) What is Root kit?

(e) What is computer architecture?

13. (a) In the year 2000 out of a total 1750 workers of a factory 1200 workers were members of a union. The number of women employed was 200 of which 175 did not belong to the union. In 2005 , the number of union workers increased to 1510 of which 1290 were men . On the other hand the number of non union workers fell down to 208 of which 180 were men. 8

(i) Put the above information in a proper table with title.

(ii) Calculate the increase in the percentage of the female workers belonging to the union in that five year period.

(b) The marks obtained by 20 students in a subject are given: 8 32, 62, 72, 46, 52, 74, 53, 42, 58, 61, 59, 46, 36, 76, 58, 77, 62, 48, 36, 39. Form a frequency distribution table with class interval 10. Also Draw the Histogram.

14. (a) For the following distribution of statistics test grades, construct a frequency polygon and answer the following: 8

(i) How many test grades are greater than 87 ?

(ii) What percentage of test grades are greater than 83?

(iii) What percentage of test grades are lower than72? '

(iv) What percentage of test grades are between 72 and 79 (inclusive )

Test Grades:

73, 92, 57, 89, 70, 95, 75, 80, 47, 88, 47, 48, 64, 86, 79, 72, 71, 77, 93, 55, 75, 50, 53, 75, 85, 50, 82, 45, 40, 82, 60, 89, 79, 65, 54, 93, 60, 83, 59

(b). Construct an appropriate diagram to show the following data of a university: 8

Course No. of Students

Engineering 440

Arts 220

Agriculture 120

Home Science 80

Economic 60

Total = 920

15. (a) What do you understand by 2

(i) Primary and secondary data

(ii) Data classification

(iii) Measures of central tendency

(iv) Characteristics of good average

(b) The mean wage of 100 laborers working in a factory running two shifts of 60 and 40 workers respectively is Rs. 38. The mean wage of 60 labourers working in the morning shift is Rs 40. Find the mean wage of 40 Labourers working in the evening shift. 2

(c) The mean age of a group of 5 boys is 16 years. Another boy joins the group and then the mean age of the group becomes 18 years. How old is the newcomer? 2

(d) Arithmetic means of two completely different sets of values may be same. When extreme values are taken into consideration, the arithmetic mean is largely affected. Is it merit or demerit of arithmetic mean and give reasons for your statement? 2

Reasoning Test : Bank PO

Reasoning Ability Test : Bank PO , MBA, RBB, S.S.C.

1. Satyam walked 10 m towards West from his house. Then he walked 5 m turning to his left. After this he walked 10 m turning to his left and in the end he walked 10 m turning to his left. In what direction is he now from his starting point?
(A) South
(B) North
(C) East
(D) West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
2. Raza walks 100 m from his house towards North. From there he goes 100 m towards West. Here is the house of Satyam. From there they both goes to the market which is in the South-West direction from Satyam's house. If the market is in the West of Raza's house, then how far is the market from Raza's house?
(A) 100 m
(B) 150 m
(C) 300 m
(D) 400 m
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
3. Ravi goes 5 km towards North from a fixed point. Then he goes 3 km after turning to his right. After this he goes 5 km turning to his right. In the end he goes 4 km after turning to his left. How far and in what direction is he now from the fixed point?
(A) 4 km, West
(B) 7 km, East
(C) 9 km, East
(D) 7 km, West
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
4. How many 7's are there in the following number series; which are preceded by an even
number but not followed by any odd?
437523721367542742712276572
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (B)
5. How many 5's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by 3 but not followed by 2 ?
5243546785325735642354752358356
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (E)
6. How many 3's are there in the following number series, which are preceded by an odd number but not followed by an even number?
3425315213673182785391345235435
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (C)
7. If the numbers which are divisible by 4, from 4 to 84 are written in reverse order then which number will be at the 7th place?
(A) 60
(B) 28
(C) 20
(D) 32
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

8. How many numbers are there from 5 to 100, which are divisible by 3 and either unit or tenth digit or both include 3 ?
(A) 10
(B) 8
(C) 6
(D) Less than 6
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ?
23423425473243192547547234529546
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) More than four
Ans : (A)

10. If the numbers between 4 to 90, which are divisible by 5, and which contain 5 in the unit, tenth or both place, are removed, then how many numbers divisible by 5 will be left?
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 18
(D) 12
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
11. Rajan remembers that his elder brother was born between 13th and 16th April while his mother remembers that he was born after 14th April and before 17th April. If the statements of both are considered correct then on which date of April he was born ?
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 14 or 15
(D) 15
(E) 15 or 16
Ans : (D)
12. How many numbers are there from 1 to 60, which are divisible by 3 and either unit digit or tenth digit or both include 3 ?
(A) 5
(B) 9
(C)15
(D) More than 15
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
13. If the following numbers are written in descending order then what will be the middle digit of the middle term ?
723, 789, 595, 659, 713, 785, 689
(A) 1
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 3
(E) 2
Ans : (A)
14. A bus for Bombay leaves after every forty minutes from a bus stand. An enquiry clerk told a passenger that the bus had already left ten minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 10.45 a.m. At what time did the enquiry clerk give this information to the passenger ?
(A) 10.05 a.m.
(B) 9.55 a.m.
(C) 10.35 a.m.
(D) 10.15 a.m.
(E) 10.25 a.m.
Ans : (D)

15. If the numbers between 1 to 65 and divisible by 4 are written in reverse order then which of the following numbers will be at l0th place?
(A) 44
(B) 24
(C) 40
(D) 28
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
16. How many 6's are there in the following number-series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by 7 ?
56765649276743568649567
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
17. How many 4's are there in the following number-series which are preceded and followed by only an even number?
6432483154232464813242645
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
18. How many 2's are there in the following number series which are preceded by 5 but not followed by an odd number? .
13523545245226245267823527524
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) More than four
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
19. How many 3's are there in the following series, which are not preceded by an odd number but followed by 4 ?
15323465347834923456343534
(A) None
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) One
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
20. How many B's are there in the following letter-series, which are followed by G but G is not be followed by S ?
BGSQBRNOBGNSQLTBGQTDBGUWXBGF
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
21. How many D's are there in the following letter-series, which are preceded by K and followed by Q ?
KDRMBSKDQKRBLKDQMQDKEFQDK
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
22. If the numbers from 4 to 55 which are divisible by 3 and also the numbers which contain 3 as one of the digits, are removed, then how many numbers will be left?
(A) 24
(B) 23
(C) 22
(D) 25
(E) None of these.
Ans : (D)
23. At a railway station a man said to Swapna, "A train leaves for Muzaffar Nagar after every 1.45 hours. The last train has already left 50 minutes ago and the next train will leave at 5.15 p.m." At what time this information was given to Swapna ?
(A) 3.30
(B) 2.40
(C) 4.10
(D) 3.50
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
24. A trader said to his servant Ramu, "I leave for my house after every 2.40 hours from his shop. I have already gone to his house 55 minutes ago and next time. I shall go to my house from the shop at 8.15 p.m." At what time this information was given to the servant?
(A) 6.30
(B) 6.00
(C) 6.15
(D) 4.40
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
25. A doctor said to his compounder, "I go to see the patients at their residence after every 3.30 hours. I have already gone to the patient 1.20 hours ago and next time I shall go at 1.40 p.m." At what time this information was given to the compounder by the doctor?
(A) 10.10
(B) 11.30
(C) 8.50
(D) 11.20
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

Business Based Current Objective Questions

Business Based Current Objective Questions

1. "Zindagi ke saath bhi zindagi ke baad bhi" is a punchline of -
a LIC
b Relaince Life
c Bharti- AXA Life
d Indian Railway
2. CD Dawn and CD Deluxe are bike models of-
a HMSI
b Hero Honda
c Bajaj Auto
d TVS
3. The president of India has a salary of-
a 1 lakh
b 1.5 lakh
c 2 lakhs
d 5 lakhs
4. “Dus Ka Dum” hosted by Salman Khan is on air on channel
a Sony
b Star
c Star One
d Zee
5. Ganga soap is from the brand basket of-
a P&G
b ITC
c HUL
d Godrej
6. Godrej Group has alliance with
a Saralee
b Hercheys
c A & b
d GE
e P&G
7. Lifespace is the retail venture of
a Pantaloon
b Godrej Group
c Future Group
d RPG Group
8. The rural retail initiative Aadhar is an initiative of
a Pantaloon
b Godrej Group
c Future Group
d RPG Group
9. e-chaupal is a rural initiative of
a Future Group
b RPG Group
c ITC
d Pantaloon
10. Broadband penetration in India is at
a 4%
b 12%
c 20%
d 24%
11. Mobile penetration in India is at
a 15%
b 30%
c 40%
d 50%
12. Navratna Oil is a brand of
a Emami
b ITC
c HUL
d P&G
13. Monte Carlo is a brand of
a Westside
b Oswal Woolen Mills
c Crossworld
d pantaloons
14. The parent company of Rolls Royce is
a BMW
b Audi
c Toyota
d GM
15. Current standard for encryption is
a 40 bit
b 64 bit
c 128 bit
d 256 bit
16. Schaffer Group is into
a Car manufacture
b CV manufacture
c Truck Manufacture
d Car Parts
17. Altis is the new car model being launched by
a Honda
b Audi Skoda
c. GM India
d. Toyota
18. The Atom N 270 processor is more powerful than Core 2 Duo
a True
b False
c Cant Say
d None of these
19. Asda is the top grocery retailer of
a UK
b US
c. Italy
d France
20. Big Adda social networking site belongs to
a Times Group
b HT Group
c Naukri.com
d ADAG Group
21. Who is the chairman and CEO of General Motor's ?
a Rick Wagoner
b Adam Smith
c Steve Jobs
d Indra Kumar Sharma
22. Tata Nano project relocated to
a Maharastra
b Orrissa
c Uttrakhand
d. Gujrat
23. According to Digit most trustworthy PC brand is
a HP/Compaq
b Lenovo
c IBM
d Dell
24. India's Sensex consists of __________stocks.
a 30
b 50
c 75
d 100
25. Flash drive has more storage space compared to External Hard disks.
a True
b False
c Cant Say
d None of the above
26. The Advertisement of which of the following banks has the punch line "Much more to do with you in focus"?
a State Bank of Indi
b ICICI Bank
c Andhra Bank
d Bank of Baroda
ANSWERS:
1. a 2. b 3. b 4. a 5. d 6. c 7. b 8. b
9. c 10. a 11. b 12. a 13. b 14. a 15. c 16. d
17. d 18. b 19. a 20. d 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. a
25. b 26. c

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Samiksha Adhikari Exam Solved Paper

Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. Samiksha Adhikari Exam., 2006

(Held on 10-08-2008)

General Studies

1. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of—

(A) Finance Ministry

(B) Finance Commission

(C) Reserve Bank of India

(D) NABARD

Ans : (B)

2. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?

(A) Agra

(B) Mirzapur

(C) Moradabad

(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar

Ans : (D)

3. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?

(A) Bank of Baroda

(B) Punjab National Bank

(C) State Bank of India

(D) UCO Bank

Ans : (C)

4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers—

(A) all children in the age group 3–10

(B) all children in the age group 4–8

(C) all children in the age group 5–15

(D) all children in the age group 6–14

Ans : (D)

5. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing—

(A) employment to rural women folk

(B) employment to urban women folk

(C) employment to disabled persons

(D) providing training and skills to women

Ans : (D)

6. Mixed economy means—

(A) existence of both small and big industries

(B) existence of both private and public sectors

(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors

(D) none of the above

Ans : (B)

7. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?

(A) 6

(B) 7

(C) 8

(D) 9

Ans : (C)

8. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?

(A) Japan

(B) Denmark

(C) U.S.A.

(D) Switzerland

Ans : (A)

9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Place)

(a) Vishakhapatnam

(b) Muri

(c) Gurgaon

(d) Panki

List-II (Industry)

1. Automobile

2. Ship-building

3. Fertiliser

4. Aluminium

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 2 3 4 1

(B) 2 4 1 3

(C) 1 2 3 4

(D) 2 4 3 1

Ans : (B)

10. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?

(A) ICICI Bank

(B) HDFC Bank

(C) Indian Overseas Bank

(D) UTI Bank

Ans : (C)

11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists—

List-I (Mineral Production)

(a) Mineral Oil

(b) Gypsum

(c) Gold

(d) Bauxite

List-II (State)

1. Orissa

2. Karnataka

3. Gujarat

4. Rajasthan

Codes :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) 1 2 3 4

(B) 2 1 4 3

(C) 4 3 1 2

(D) 3 4 2 1

Ans : (D)

12. Consider the following statements—

Assertion (A) : Atomic energy in India promises to meet the future energy demand of the country.

Reason (R) : Atomic minerals are ubiquitous in India.

Select the correct answer from the code given below :

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans : (C)

13. Which of the following states has the longest coast line ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Kerala

(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following rock systems in India is the main source of coal deposits ?

(A) Dharwar system

(B) Gondwana system

(C) Cudappa system

(D) Vindhyan system

Ans : (B)

15. Laterite soil is found in—

(A) Uttar Pradesh

(B) Himachal Pradesh

(C) Punjab

(D) Maharashtra

Ans : (D)

16. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Kirghiz — Central Asia

(B) Masai — West Africa

(C) Red Indians — North America

(D) Eskimos — Greenland

Ans : (B)

17. Chilka lake is situated in—

(A) West Bengal

(B) Andhra Pradesh

(C) Orissa

(D) Tamil Nadu

Ans : (C)

18. Damodar is a tributary of river—

(A) Ganga

(B) Hugli

(C) Padma

(D) Suvarn Rekha

Ans : (B)

19. Sangam Yojana is concerned with—

(A) provision for clean drinking water

(B) provision for cleaning rivers

(C) promoting communal harmony

(D) helping the invalids

Ans : (D)

20. National Dairy Development Board is located in—

(A) Anand

(B) Gandhinagar

(C) Vadodara

(D) Valsad

Ans : (A)

21. Economic Planning is included in the Constitution of India in—

(A) Union List

(B) State List

(C) Concurrent List

(D) Special List

Ans : (C)

22. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?

(A) Kimberley —Diamond

(B) Havana —Meat packing

(C) Milan —Silk

(D) Sheffield —Cutlery

Ans : (C)

23. Dudhawa National Park is situated in the district of—

(A) Lalitpur

(B) Pilibhit

(C) Lakhimpur Khiri

(D) Sonbhadra

Ans : (C)

24. The correct descending order of major states of India in terms of density of population (2001) is—

(A) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar, Kerala

(B) West Bengal, Kerala, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh

(C) Uttar Pradesh, Kerala, West Bengal, Bihar

(D) West Bengal, Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Kerala

Ans : (B)

25. The major coffee producing state in India is—

(A) Kerala

(B) Karnataka

(C) Tamil Nadu

(D) West Bengal

Ans : (B)

26. March 24 (2008) was observed as—

(A) World AIDS Day

(B) World Disabled Day

(C) World Environment Day

(D) World Tuberculosis (TB) Day

Ans : (D)

27. Which one of the following pairs of Harappan sites and their locations is notcorrectly matched ?

(A) Alamgirpur —Uttar Pradesh

(B) Banawali —Haryana

(C) Diamabad —Maharashtra

(D) Rakhigarhi —Rajasthan

Ans : (D)

28. Jivaka, the famous physician of the time of Gautama Buddha, was associated with the court of—

(A) Bimbisara

(B) Chanda Pradyota

(C) Prasenajeta

(D) Udayana

Ans : (A)

29. After President’s signature on the recommendation of Delimitation Commission, Parliamentary and Assembly Constituencies with certain exemptions, will be redefined. Which of the following are exempted ?

1. Arunachal Pradesh and Manipur

2. Assam

3. Nagaland

4. Jharkhand

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1 only

(B) 2 and 3

(C) 3 and 4

(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans : (D)

30. The winner of French Open, 2008 (Ladies singles) was—

(A) Dinara Safina

(B) Ana Ivanovic

(C) Jelena Jankovic

(D) Svetlana Kuznetsova

Ans : (B)

31. Who among the following was of the view that the Earth revolves round the Sun ?

(A) Aryabhatta

(B) Brahmagupta

(C) Varahamihira

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

32. What is the difference (in years) between the Vikrama and Saka eras ?

(A) 57 years

(B) 78 years

(C) 135 years

(D) 320 years

Ans : (C)

33. Who among the following rulers paid attention to the water resource management in Girnar region some centuries before the Christian era ?

1. Mahapadma Nanda

2. Chandragupta Maurya

3. Ashoka

4. Rudradaman

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2

(B) 2, 3

(C) 3, 4

(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (D)

34. Ptolemy Philadelphus with whom Ashoka had diplomatic relations was the ruler of—

(A) Cyrene

(B) Egypt

(C) Macedonia

(D) Syria

Ans : (B)

35. The inscription belonging to which one of the following dynasties confirms the tradition that Lumbini was the birth place of Sakyamuni Buddha ?

(A) Maurya

(B) Sunga

(C) Satavahana

(D) Kushana

Ans : (A)

36. Which literature had its classical age under Krishnadeva Raya, the famous Vijayanagara king ?

(A) Konkani

(B) Malayalam

(C) Tamil

(D) Telugu

Ans : (D)

37. The city of Jaunpur was founded by—

(A) Mohammad-bin-Tughlaq

(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(C) Ibrahim Shah Sharqi

(D) Sikandar Lodi

Ans : (B)

38. The department of Public Works was established for the first time by—

(A) Alauddin Khalji

(B) Balban

(C) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(D) Iltutmish

Ans : (C)

39. Who were the ‘Nayanars’ ?

(A) Saivites

(B) Saktas

(C) Vaishnavites

(D) Sun worshippers

Ans : (A)

40. Who among the following kings had strong leaning towards Jainism ?

(A) Dasratha

(B) Brihadratha

(C) Kharavela

(D) Huvishka

Ans : (C)

41. Which one of the following rulers had granted Diwani to the East India Company ?

(A) Farrukhsiyar

(B) Shah Alam-I

(C) Shah Alam-II

(D) Shujaud Daula

Ans : (C)

42. The transfer of capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi was effected during the period of—

(A) Lord Minto

(B) Lord Hardinge

(C) Lord Chelmsford

(D) Lord Reading

Ans : (B)

43. The Durand line demarcated India’s border with—

(A) Afghanistan

(B) Burma

(C) Nepal

(D) Tibet

Ans : (A)

44. What was the rate of exchange between the Copper Dam and Silver Rupaya under Sher Shah ?

(A) 16 : 1

(B) 32 : 1

(C) 40 : 1

(D) 64 : 1

Ans : (C)

45. Arrange the following events of Akbar’s reign in a chronological order :

1. Abolition of Jazia

2. Construction of Ibadatkhana

3. Signing of Mahzar

4. Foundation of Din-i-Ilahi

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2, 3, 4

(B) 2, 3, 4, 1

(C) 1, 3, 2, 4

(D) 3, 4, 1, 2

Ans : (A)

46. After the arrest of Gandhiji during the Salt Satyagraha, who took his place as leader of the movement ?

(A) Abbas Tyabji

(B) Abul Kalam Azad

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Vallabhbhai Patel

Ans : (A)

47. Which one of the following revolutionaries involved in Kakori case had escaped the trial ?

(A) Sachindra Nath Bakshi

(B) Mukundi Lal

(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad

(D) Manmath Nath Gupta

Ans : (A)

48. Who changed the name of Hindustan Republic Association founded by Sachindra Sanyal to ‘Hindustan Socialist Republic Association’ ?

(A) Ras Behari Bose

(B) Batukeshwar Datt

(C) Sardar Bhagat Singh

(D) Chandra Shekhar Azad

Ans : (C)

49. Which one of the following revolutionaries was executed in the Gorakhpur Jail ?

(A) Ramprasad Bismil

(B) Rajendra Lahiri

(C) Roshan Singh

(D) Ashfaqullah Khan

Ans : (A)

50. Whose sustained efforts led to the establishment of the first women’s university in Bombay ?

(A) Dayaram Gidumal

(B) D. K. Karve

(C) Ramabai

(D) Mahadev Govind Ranade

Ans : (B)

51. Which one of the following is the most urbanized states of India according to 2001 Census ?

(A) Gujarat

(B) West Bengal

(C) Maharashtra

(D) Kerala

Ans : (C)

52. According to 2001 Census the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are—

(A) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Nagaland and Sikkim

(B) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Mizoram and Sikkim

(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Nagaland

(D) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Nagaland

Ans : (C)

53. Among the following which fruit is a rich source of iron ?

(A) Jamun

(B) Karonda

(C) Loquat

(D) Guava

Ans : (A)

54. Vitamin which promotes wound healing is—

(A) Vitamin B

(B) Vitamin C

(C) Vitamin A

(D) Vitamin D

Ans : (C)

55. Bauxite is an ore of—

(A) Aluminium

(B) Boron

(C) Lead

(D) Silver

Ans : (A)

56. Which of the following methods is used to determine the age of the earth ?

(A) Carbon dating

(B) Germanium dating

(C) Uranium dating

(D) All the above

Ans : (C)

57. Name the gas which under normal conditions produces pollution in the atmosphere ?

(A) Carbon monoxide (CO)

(B) Carbon dioxide (CO₂)

(C) Nitrogen (N₂)

(D) Oxygen (O₂)

Ans : (A)

58. Electron-volt is the unit for—

(A) energy

(B) charge of electron

(C) potential difference

(D) power

Ans : (A)

59. An atom bomb is based on the principle of—

(A) nuclear fission

(B) nuclear fusion

(C) nuclear spallation

(D) none of these

Ans : (A)

60. Titan is the largest moon or satellite of—

(A) Mars

(B) Venus

(C) Jupiter

(D) Saturn

Ans : (D)

61. The most toxic metal pollutant of the automobile exhaust is—

(A) Copper

(B) Lead

(C) Cadmium

(D) Mercury

Ans : (B)

62. Which of the following disease is caused by a virus ?

(A) Diphtheria

(B) Malaria

(C) Cholera

(D) Hepatitis

Ans : (D)

63. If the circumference of a circle is increased by 50%, then the area will be increased by—

(A) 50%

(B) 100%

(C) 125%

(D) 225%

Ans : (D)

64. The term ‘Siamese Twins’ is used for—

(A) twins in which there is one male and one female

(B) twins in which both are females

(C) twins suffering from a common disease of siam

(D) twins physically attached to each other

Ans : (D)

65. Every solar eclipse takes place on—

(A) full moon only

(B) new moon only

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) neither (A) nor (B)

Ans : (B)

66. The headquarter of which of the following is correctly given ?

(A) UNO—London

(B) WTO—Geneva

(C) ILO—New York

(D) FAO—Chicago

Ans : (B)

67. White bud of maize is caused due to deficiency of—

(A) N

(B) Zn

(C) Cu

(D) Mn

Ans : (B)

68. A number is 20 more than its 20%. The number is—

(A) 20

(B) 25

(C) 50

(D) 80

Ans : (B)

69. The train which was started on April 14, 2008 between Kolkata (India) and Dhaka (Bangladesh) has been named—

(A) Sadbhavna Express

(B) Shanti Express

(C) Maitri Express

(D) Aman Express

Ans : (C)

70. Thailand’s Ponsana Boonsak won the men’s singles of the India open Grand Prix Badminton championship held in Hyderabad in April 2008. In the final he defeated—

(A) Anand Pawar

(B) Arvind Bhat

(C) Chetan Anand

(D) Zhendong Guo

Ans : (C)

71. Indian Institute of Remote sensing is located at—

(A) Ahmedabad

(B) Dehradun

(C) Shriharikota

(D) None of the above

Ans : (D)

72. The winner of the 62nd Santosh Trophy, held in June 2008, was—

(A) Karnataka

(B) West Bengal

(C) Services

(D) Punjab

Ans : (D)

73. Who among the following was the Chief Guest on the occasion of Republic Day, 2008 ?

(A) British Prime Minister Gardon Brown

(B) French President Nicolas Sarcozy

(C) Danish Prime Minister Anders Fogh Rasmussen

(D) Russian President Vladimir Putin

Ans : (B)

74. In April 2008 fourth convention of Nuclear safety was held in—

(A) Vienna

(B) London

(C) Paris

(D) Rome

Ans : (A)

75. Who among the following received Padma Vibhushan Award of 2008 ?

1. Madhuri Dixit

2. Ratan Tata

3. Sachin Tendulkar

4. Viswanathan Anand

Select the correct answer from the code given below—

(A) 1, 2

(B) 2, 3

(C) 3, 4

(D) 2, 3, 4

Ans : (B)